Results 21 - 28 of 28
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Results from: Notes Author: RevC Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Women starting churches....???? | 1 Tim 2:12 | RevC | 4562 | ||
I am not a big fan of CRI.... they seem to have a problem with everyone. I am could not in fact recommend CRI to anyone. I do however appreciate the information and the spirit of which it was given..... What would really help out is if you could give me information on what CRI has to say about the UPCI......I'll be looking fo it | ||||||
22 | Women starting churches....???? | 1 Tim 2:12 | RevC | 4580 | ||
jvh0212 United Pentecostal Church International.. I am looking forward to your reply |
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23 | difference in trinity and oneness | 1 Tim 2:12 | RevC | 4662 | ||
Here is some food for thought on trinity and oneness 1. Is the word trinity in the Bible? No. 2. Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No. 3. Does the Bible speak of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost? Yes. 4. Do these titles as used in Matthew 28:19 mean that there are three separate and distinct persons in the Godhead? No, they refer to three offices, roles, or relationship to humanity. 5. Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God? Only one verse in the entire Bible does so-I John 5:7. It speaks of the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it concludes by saying, "These three are one." 6. Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19. 7. Can the mystery of the Godhead be understood? Yes. Romans 1:20; Colossians 2:9; I Timothy 3:16. 8. Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9. 9. Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for personin this verse literally means "substance." 10. Does the Bible say that there are two persons in the Godhead? No. 11. Does the Bible say that all the Godhead is revealed in one person? Yes, in Jesus Christ. II Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:19; 2:9; Hebrews 1:3. 12. Is the mystery of the Deity hidden from some people? Yes. Luke 10:21-22. 13. Who is the Father? The Father is the one God, particularly as revealed in parental relationship to humanity. Deuteronomy 32:6; Malachi 2:10. 14. Where was God the Father while Jesus was on earth? The Father was in Christ. John 14:10; II Corinthians 5:19. He was also in heaven, for God is omnipresent. 15. Did the prophet Isaiah say that Jesus would be the Father? Yes. Isaiah 9:6; 63:16. 16. When God said, "Let us make man in our image" (Genesis 1:26), was He speaking to another person in the Godhead? No. Isaiah 44:24; Malachi 2:10. 17. How many of God's qualities were in Christ? All. Colossians 2:9. 18. How may we see the God who sent Jesus into the world? By seeing Jesus. John 12:44-45; 14:9. 19. Does the Bible say that Jesus is the Almighty? Yes. Revelation 1:8 20. Whom do some designate as the first person in the trinity? God the Father. 21. Whom do some designate as the last person in the trinity? The Holy Ghost. But Jesus said that He was the first and last. Revelation 1:17-18 22. How many persons did John see sitting on the throne in heaven? One. Revelation 4:2. 23. If Jesus is the first and the last, why did God say in Isaiah 44:6 that He was the first and the last? Because Jesus is the God of the Old Testament incarnate. 24. Did Jesus tell Satan that God alone should be worshipped? Yes. Matthew 4:10 25. Does the devil believe in more than one God? No. James 2:19. 26. Does the Bible say that God, who is the Word, was made flesh? Yes John 1:1, 14. 27. For what purpose was God manifested in the flesh? To save sinners. Hebrews 2:9, 14. 28. Was Jesus God manifested in the flesh? Yes. I Timothy 3:16. 29. Could Jesus have been on earth and in heaven at the same time? Yes. John 3:13. 30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5. 31. Does the Bible say that Christ is the Lord? Yes. Luke 2:11. 33. How could the church belong to Jesus (Matthew 16:18) and yet be the church of God (I Corinthians 10:32)? Because Jesus is God in the flesh. 34. Will God give His glory to another? No. Isaiah 42:8. 35. Was there a God formed before Jehovah, or will there be one formed after? No. Isaiah 43:10. 36. What is one thing that God does not know? Another God. Isaiah 44:8. 37. What is one thing that God Cannot do? Lie. Titus 1:2. 38. How many Gods should we know? Only one. Hosea 13:4. 39. How many names has the Lord? One. Zechariah 14:9. 40. Is it good to think upon the name of the Lord? Yes. Malachi 3:16. 42. Why, then, was Jesus able to walk upon the Sea of Galilee (Matthew 14:25)? Because He is God the Creator. Colossians 1:16. 43. Is God the only one who can forgive sin? Yes. Isiah 43:25; Mark 2:7. 44. Why, then, could Jesus forgive sin in Mark 2:5-11? Because He is God the Savior. 45. Does the Bible say that there is only one wise God? Yes. Jude 25. 46. Does the Bible call the Holy Ghost a second or third person in the Godhead? No. The Holy Ghost is the one Spirit of God, the one God Himself at work in our lives. John 4:24; I Corinthians 3:16-17; 6:19; 12:13. |
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24 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4859 | ||
The doctrine of the trinity was the attempt to defend three Biblical teachings all at the same time: monotheism; the divinity of the Father, Son, and Spirit; and the Scriptural distinctions between the Father, Son, and Spirit. The doctrine developed over a period of over 200 years and continued to be refined for hundreds of years after. Its development was an attempt to understand the nature of God in terms of Greek philosophical concepts, Every man will always come short and develop deficiencies in his theology. Understanding this, we need to watch ourselves lest we elevate a certain creedal statement, a certain author’s explanation, or our own understanding of God to the place of untouchable orthodoxy. Just as the doctrine of the trinity developed over time, and the individual’s theologies developed over time, so too our understanding of God develops over time.There is only one God. This is the emphatic teaching of the Old Testament. The Jews were the people who knew their God if anyone did John 4:22, and they had no concept of persons within the Godhead. In the book of Isaiah God makes some very strong statements which I believe do not allow for a Trinitarian understanding. In Isaiah 44:6-8 God makes the statement, I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me . . . Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Could scripture be any plainer than this? In verse 24 he states, I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself And spreading out the earth all alone. If language means anything then by Myself" and alone mean that there was no other person present. If God is not claiming that he is absolutely one here, then what stronger language would one suggest to convey this? Why would God be so emphatic about oneness, if in reality he were three persons? Would not these statements be misleading? In the next chapter he states, I am the LORD, and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God. I will gird you, though you have not known MeThat men may know from the rising to the setting of the sun That there is no one besides Me. I am the LORD, and there is no other, The One forming light and creating darkness, Causing well-being and creating calamity; I am the LORD who does all these Isa. 45:5-7. Once again, if God were really three persons, could he use such emphatic language as this? If we take this to be one of the members of the Trinity speaking here, would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me? Would he not be forced to admit that there are indeed two other persons in the Godhead? In 46:9 God says, Remember the former things long past, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me. In this statement, there is one person speaking (notice the singular pronouns) and that singular person says that there is no one like him. I do not see how it is possible to see a Trinity in these passages we have looked at. Surely the coming of Christ did not in any way compromise this strict Monotheism taught in the Old Testament. There is only one God. That God is our father. If Jesus is that God then Jesus is our father. As to his deity, Jesus Christ is God the Father. Isaiah 9:6 clearly calls him the Father. Some have argued that this should be translated "Father of Eternity," but not one major translation translates it that way However, even if we adopt the translation "Father of Eternity" does that diminish the force? Jesus is called the Father. I Corinthians 8:6 tells us that, to us there is but one God, the Father. There is no God outside of the Father. So in the sense that Jesus is that God, then Jesus is the Father. Malachi 2:10 asks the question Have we not all one Father? hath not one God created us?So we all have one Father, and our Father is God. The reason we call God our Father is because he created us. John 1:3, Colossians 1:16 and Hebrews 1:2 tell us that all things were created by Jesus, thereby making him our Father. | ||||||
25 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4918 | ||
Oneness Answers to trinitarian questions. Joe! here yet is another entry supplying you with all you asked for. My entries are lengthy,full of proof,scripture and explanation. Yours are full of judgement,false claims and opinion. Yet I love you.. please read and respond.. By the way you are my brother in Christ regardless of where you place my standing in God's kingdom. Also I had to reduce this because it was to long I can send more when your done. When Jesus spoke of the Father it was always in a way that distanced his identity from that of Father God. This was in keeping with his character of not appearing as God, although he was. Concerning this subject Jesus made the following promise These things have I spoken unto you in proverb: but the time cometh, when I shall not more speak unto you in proverbs, but I shall shew you plainly of the Father John 16:25. Paul referred to this same event of revelation when he wrote unto Timothy, Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and the Lord of lords Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen 1 Timothy 6:15-16. But that still leaves the question Why does the New Testament make a distinction at times? The answer to this goes back to the dual nature of Jesus. In the capacity of being fully man, He was distinct from God. Not just distinct from the Father but from being God also. This is why we can see references to the God of Jesus Christ Matt. 27:46; John 20:17; Eph. 1:17. This is obviously not the God of God. It is the God of a man. Jesus is called a man over and over Acts 2:22; 13:38; I Tim 2:5. As a man, there were things He did not know Mark 13:32, there were things He could not do Mark 6:5, He could only be in one place at one time John 16:7, He could be tempted Heb 4:15, He could thirst John 19:28, and He could die John 19:33. So from this point of view He was distinct from God, and could be spoken of that way. But from another point of view He was fully God and could be called such John 20:28; I Tim 3:16; I John 5:20. When we see a separate reference it is something like: "God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ." What you never see is: "God the Father and God the Son." As I Timothy 2:5 puts it, For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. In John 10:30 Jesus said, I and my Father are one. Does that mean unity? Well, I ask if that was all he meant then why did the Jews pick up stones to stone him? v. 31 Jesus asks them why v. 32, and they answered him, because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God v. 33. They understood this as claiming to be God, not claiming to be in accordance with him. So if I and the Father are one means I am God, then he must be God the Father. Some Trinitarians have tried to draw attention to the neuter gender of the word one in this passage (Gk - hen), claiming that this means that they are one in unity. However, this is the same word used in passages such as Eph. 4:4 where it says that there is one Spirit, and no one would argue that this means only one in unity. In Matthew 28:19, Jesus commanded the disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Yet they routinely baptized only in Jesus' name.Either they were mistaken, or they understood the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost to be Jesus. Surely the apostles didn't disobey their Lord. I could give you scriptures to show that Jesus is indeed God, however Joe!, we already agree on that supposedly but here are a few that show that he is specifically the Father who is the only God, Mal 2:10; I Cor 8:6. 1. Jesus said that He would send the comforter to us John 16:7, but He also said the Father would send the comforter John 14:26. 2. The Father alone can draw men to God John 6:44 , yet Jesus said He would draw all men John 12:32. 3. Jesus will raise up all believers in the last day John 6:40, yet God the Father quickens gives life to the dead and will raise us up Romans 4:17 I Corinthians 6:14. 4. Christ is our sanctifier Ephesians 5:26, yet the Father sanctifies us Jude 1. We can easily understand all of this if we realize that Jesus has a dual nature. He is both Spirit and flesh, God and man, Father and Son. As our Lord said elsewhere, things I have spoken to you in figurative language an hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figurative language, but will tell you plainly of the Father John 16:25. Or as Zechariah the prophet said, "And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one" Zech. 14:9 |
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26 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4936 | ||
please see my earlier posts concerning issue. Much of what you have addressed is more opinion than fact | ||||||
27 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4997 | ||
Thank you so much for the encouragement!!! I have tried hard to follow the word of God without bias. I really thought all that I gave was very scriptural. Perhaps we should be proud of the red dots! Gods word is a two edged sword. It is bound to be controversial. It hurt my feelings a little when I first saw those little red dots. However since this post... I am encouraged again...God Bless you! | ||||||
28 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | RevC | 4999 | ||
Joe! I can see your point here and how it can be confusing. While I do not totally discredit the trinitarian view I feel it is limited in trying to fit God into three persons as opposed to fitting Him into three roles. Which I have done a more than ample job explaning. The mute point and one that we have found that we can agree on is there is ONE GOD. I think I am correct in that? Arent I? Nonetheless I will answer your questions and then ask a few of you myself First your addressal of the first 4 points. I think that would be an awful lot of rehash at this point. If you would like I could e mail you all of that information or I could repost my commments they have been quite informative and full of scripture,explanation and so on. To address your last comment- Jesus is the "Son" of God, Yet He is God...Now then that is a little confusing in its self and both are sciptural. God fulfills each role in complete fullness the son,the father and the holy spirit.... which is why Colossians tells us the fullness of the Godhead dwelleth in Him bodily. In other words Jesus was the father, the son and the holy spirit. That is obviously and blatantly scriptural. Thus Jesus has two natures-Spirit and flesh,God and man,Father and Son. So no I do not necessarily believe that His sonship was only human in nature. I do believe in three seperate and distinct roles. Now I'll really put my neck on the chopping block. I also believe that He can fulfill these three roles at the same time. yeesh! scarey huh? However In the book of Isaiah God makes some very strong statements which I believe do not allow for a Trinitarian understanding. In Isaiah 44:6-8 God makes the statement, I am the first and I am the last, And there is NO God BESIDES ME . . . Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. Could scripture be any plainer than this? In verse 24 he states, I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself And spreading out the earth all alone. If language means anything then by Myself" and alone mean that there was no other person present. If God is not claiming that he is absolutely one here, then what stronger language would one suggest to convey this? If we take this to be one of the members of the Trinity speaking here, would it be honest for him to say, "There is no one besides Me? Would he not be forced to admit that there are indeed two other persons in the Godhead? God Bless you Joe. |
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