Results 1941 - 1960 of 1999
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Results from: Notes Author: Ray Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1941 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 96324 | ||
Hi Hank, I don't think the shouter wants to help me here so I will talk to you about this English question. I know you are capable. If the verse reads "It is the Spirit that..." does that not outline as a sentence that the Spirit is an it? However, I would go with the Greek in that it reads "And the Spirit is the (One) witnessing, because the Spirit is the truth." What do you think, teach? From the hear, Ray |
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1942 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 96367 | ||
Hi Hank, I know of only two occurances of "It is the Spirit that" and they are John 6:63 and 1 John 5:7. I agree with your beloved King James here on these occurances: John 6:63, KJ, "It is the spirit [sic] that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life." 1 John 5:6b, KJ, "And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth." So like I say, I agree with the King James here. Now how my Greek linear translation determines that John 6:63 should read, "THE SPIRIT IS THE THING MAKING ALIVE; THE FLESH DOES NOT PROFIT ANYTHING." and 1 John 5:6 should read "AND THE SPIRIT IS THE ONE GIVING TESTIMONY, BECAUSE THE SPIRIT IS THE TRUTH." I say, how they determine these differing translations from the exact same Greek words I do not know; but I agree with them. John 6:63 means to them that the "spirit is the thing that" and 1 John 5:6b means that "the Spirit is the One or [One] giving testimony". I've written a bad paragraph of sentence structures, but I hope that I have made myself clear. Do you have any comments on my questions two or three above? From the heart, Ray |
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1943 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 96368 | ||
Hi Hank, I know of only two occurances of "It is the Spirit that" and they are John 6:63 and 1 John 5:7. I agree with your beloved King James here on these occurances: John 6:63, KJ, "It is the spirit [sic] that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life." 1 John 5:6b, KJ, "And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth." So like I say, I agree with the King James here. Now how my Greek linear translation determines that John 6:63 should read, "THE SPIRIT IS THE THING MAKING ALIVE; THE FLESH DOES NOT PROFIT ANYTHING." and 1 John 5:6 should read "AND THE SPIRIT IS THE ONE GIVING TESTIMONY, BECAUSE THE SPIRIT IS THE TRUTH." I say, how they determine these differing translations from the exact same Greek words I do not know; but I agree with them. John 6:63 means to them that the "spirit is the thing that" and 1 John 5:6b means that "the Spirit is the One or [One] giving testimony". I've written a bad paragraph of sentence structures, but I hope that I have made myself clear. Do you have any comments on my questions two or three above? From the heart, Ray |
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1944 | The one true God? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 98161 | ||
Hi Tim, Thanks for talking with me. The change that I spoke of in the newest NASB was exchanging "one" for "One" for 1 John 5:6. When I was working on my personal copy I had made that change already before the newest NASB copyright. But in considering this thread, I am ready to think of putting it back in the lower case. I am thinking of putting "One" back to the old NASB copyright lower case "one" for these reasons. 1) Consistency in translation of verses 6 and 20. "This is the one who came by water and blood" and "This is the one true God and eternal life." 2) The Spirit is not an "it". I would interpret 1 John 5:7 as "And the Spirit is the One witnessing, because the Spirit is the truth." Or possibly, "And the Spirit is the one witnessing, because the Spirit is the Truth." We know that the Son of God has come into the world, and [He] has given us understanding, in order that we might know the One who is true. And we are in the true One, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the one true God. 1 John 5:20 From the heart, Ray |
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1945 | The Spirit or spirit?The Truth or truth? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122668 | ||
Hi Searcher56, I am a little disappointed that you do not want to discuss this any more. I did read a few other threads from a "Search" and perhaps we can go to #36955 where the poster offers a definition of god. Childofaking and glory777 are searchers in that thread. But I still have not heard from you about what you think of god? Is god the same as God? Is an angel(a spirit being), the same as the Angel? Which comparison of Scriptures would you go with? John 1:1, NWT, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (God), and the Word was a god. This **one was in the beginning with God." John 1:1, NASB, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (God), and the Word was God. This **One was in the beginning with God." Do you agree with the Jehovah's Witness that **"he", (this god), was in the beginning with God? 1) You wrote "The Spirit is the Holy Spirit". So I agree. End of discussion. 2) However, is a [the]spirit the Holy Spirit? Is god the one, holy God? Is there room for any more discussion on these questions with you? 3) 1 John 5:5, NASB, "And who is the one who overcomes the world, but he who believes that (Jesus) is the Son of God? 6 This is the **(o)One who came by water and blood..." The NASB has changed from "one" to "One" and I agree with their last copyright here. What do you find distasteful about studying capitalization? From the heart, Ray |
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1946 | A witness of the (w)Word? Yes. Both? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122829 | ||
Hi Searcher, O.K., I hear you. However, I would gladly try to be a ray of light if you would continue to be a searcher of truth. Best wishes, ray P.S. I am also a "counter of pronouns". Perhaps we can have some discussions concerning that other obsession of mine. I am considering Psalm 82 right now. From the heart, Ray |
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1947 | A witness of the (w)Word? Yes. Both? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122847 | ||
Hi Rowdy, I have been involved in my study of His (w)Word since 1985. My wife of almost 30 years has thought of it as a compulsive/obsessive disorder. I have seen four psychologists together with her and with myself alone discussing it. We have talked of the resulting feelings of a strained relationship because of the time involved in the study. My wife, as well as many spouses on this forum I would suppose, has bemoaned the amount of time spent before this computer. One of the four pyschologists that I have seen for various time periods over the last twenty years was a Bible College President as well as a counsellor and psychologist and friend. Although seeing the problems inherent in my relationships with others because of the time spent on it, no one saw any danger in my studies from a religious standpoint. I appreciate your concern for me as well as my effectiveness for witnessing. Right now my work is still in pencil; I am searching right along with everyone else. If I have time to complete it in pen (not in stone) then I will see about calling it a ministry. In other words, if you think I am obsessed now, watch out for when/if I get it done in pen. I want to know Him and be complete in Him. Best wishes. From the heart, Ray |
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1948 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122868 | ||
Hi Kalos, So now you know that Ray has some problems with which to deal. However, I have asked Steve and now I ask you, "What do you find distasteful or 'disturbing' about capitalization study?" "What do you find 'unreasonable' about counting pronouns?" The disciples were men of "discipline". They worked hard. The disciples were called "mathetes", Strong's #3101. We get our word "math" from this Greek word. I believe that the disciples were mathmeticians to quite a degree. So whose problem are we talking about here? Do you have a problem as well? From the heart, Ray |
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1949 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122887 | ||
Hi Kalos, Certainly it would have been less confusing for you to have agreed with Searcher than to connect to the fact that I should go to school and learn English. You and Searcher have a valid point in that being obsessed, troubled of mind, an evil spirit ruling a person; all these have negative meaning and significance. But I wonder if there is necessarily that negativity. Webster for "obsession" has this also: 2a) the fact or state of being obsessed with an idea, desire, emotion, etc. b) such a persistent idea, desire, emotion, etc., esp. one that cannot be gotten rid of by reasoning. That sounds like it could be a magnificent obession to me. Not necessarily negative. From the heart, Ray |
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1950 | Who is this One (or one)? | 1 John 5:6 | Ray | 122893 | ||
Hi Kalos, We can't expect a reply from inactive members can we, but their thoughts still initiate activity. Thanks for your participation in this thread. Do you go with the NKJ version for Psalm 95:5? From the heart, Ray |
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1951 | put 1Jn 5:7 BACK where it belongs! | 1 John 5:7 | Ray | 98728 | ||
Hi justanotherchristian, I wonder how you feel about capitalization of Deity in regards to THE STANDARD ENGLISH BIBLE. You have said that you believe that God Himself [sic] is voting for the King James. Yet before you are halfway through Genesis we read about God seeing about finding a lamb "himself". Genesis 22:8, KJ, "And Abraham said, My son, God will provide himself [sic] a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together." In regard to the 1 John passage and our desire to see this support for the triune God included in the Scriptures: I would think that we also want to see the triune God in Genesis 1:26, NASB, "And God said, "Let Us [sic] make man in Our image, according to Our likeness;..."? And yet the KJ has a lower case "us". Does the lack of capitalization concern you, i.e. bother you, as far as finding a standard Bible? I recommend the NASB and the NKJ because of their capitalization of pronouns of Deity. From the heart, Ray |
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1952 | put 1Jn 5:7 BACK where it belongs! | 1 John 5:7 | Ray | 98767 | ||
Hi Hank, Did you mean "spirit thereof" or Spirit?:) Yes, there will always be divisions. Romans 2:29, KJ, "But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit [sic], and not in the letter, whose praise is not of men, but of God." Romans 2:29, NASB, "But he is a Jew who is one outwardly...by the Spirit [sic], not by the letter." 1) Romans 7:6, NASB, "But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit [marginal note, Or, spirit] and not in oldness of the letter." 2) Romans 8:22,23, NASB, "For we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now. And not only this, but also we ourselves, having the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting eagerly for our adoption as sons, the redemption of our body." Romans 8:15, NASB, "For you have not received a spirit of slavery, leading to fear again, but you have received a spirit [marginal note, Or, the Spirit] of adoption as sons by which we cry out, "Abba, Father!" Go figure. Can we make the right decisions here? I believe that we can. From the heart, Ray |
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1953 | Can we agree? A case of agreement? | 1 John 5:8 | Ray | 119257 | ||
Hi Rowdy, It is appropriate that you mention THE Spirit. The word "the" in the Greek is often understood in our translations. For instance there is no "THE" in Ephesians 5:18, "...but be filled with [the] Spirit." Does that mean that we should be filled with spirit? Consider that before you answer. 1 John 5:8 has the Spirit [Or, spirit], the water, and the blood. Those occurances of "the" are in the Greek; but that doesn't mean that the next word should be the Water [note the capitalization], and the Blood, or even the Truth in verse 7. So I would not capitalize Water and Blood so that the cases agree with Spirit. That would not be appropriate. 1) As an aside, the word "Godly" is another word to consider for determining lower or upper case translation/interpretation. 2 Corinthians 7:10, "For behold what earnestness this very thing, this godly sorrow, has produced in you:..." [Or Lit. sorrow according to God], margin note in the NASB. 2) However, I would understand from your post that you do not see the need for the words "spirit, water, and blood" to be in the same case in order to be in agreement. From the heart, Ray |
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1954 | Can we agree? A case of agreement? | 1 John 5:8 | Ray | 119363 | ||
Hi Rowdy, Sorry, but I am just now looking at my email. It has been a busy week at my home as my one and only graduated from college today. Rejoice with us.:) 1) You wrote of "two basic types of spirit: 1) His Spirit or 2) our spirit." I agree wholeheartedly with your agreement of cases for we should indeed capitalize Deity and leave our spirit in lower case. But if you would say that God does not have a spirit I would disagree with that. For Jesus gave up His spirit when He breathed His last. God also breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath [sic] of life. John 3:8 talks about the wind or the spirit from God. For Ezekiel 36:26,27 I don't know if the spirit occurances there should agree in case or not. John 3:11, NASB, "Truly, truly, I say to you, we speak of what we know and testify of what we have seen, and you do not accept our testimony." John 3:11, NKJ, "Most assuredly I say to you, We speak what we know and testify what We have seen, and you do not receive Our witness." I go with the NKJ for that verse. Can you see the possibility of the spirit and the Spirit as determining a plural of "Our witness"? 1) Certainly the witness of our spirit is worthwhile but the the witness of God is greater. My witness as a man in agreement with the Scriptures, (I believe), is that the understanding should be-- that the authors intended to say-- "For there are three that bear witness, the spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement." 1 John 5:9, "If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater; for the witness of God is this, that He has borne witness concerning His Son." What is His witness? That Jesus is the Son of God. 1 John 5:6, "This is the One [sic] who came by water and blood, Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and with the blood." And the [One], the Spirit, is the truth. From the heart, Ray |
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1955 | Is this referencing the Holy Spirit? | 1 John 5:10 | Ray | 119737 | ||
Hi mommapbs, I have said that when the unbeliever calls God a liar then he is blaspheming the Holy Spirit. The ones who believe in the Son of God (1 John 5:13) are the ones who recognize that Jesus came forth from God (John 8:42). There is no demon or unclean spirit involved in His authority. However, I really did not respond to your question about the witness or testimony in 1 John 5:10. I do not believe that the witness or testimony in 1 John 5:10 is the Holy Spirit, and I do not believe that testimony or witness should be capitalized. The MacArthur Study Bible notes say that 1 John 5:6-11 has 9 occurances of the Greek word that means "bear witness" or "testimony". I count eleven. I don't know how many of these occurances you would suggest capitalizing if any. One of the places that MacArthur does not count is in 1 John 5:10. Neither the NKJ nor the NASB has the last Strong's #3140 that is in the Greek for that verse. NKJ reads "because he has not believed the testimony that God has given of His Son". The Green's literal translation reads, "because he has not believed in the witness which God has witnessed concerning His Son". NASB reads, "because he has not believed in the witness that God has borne concerning His Son". This should read something like "witness that God has borne [witness to] concerning..."; similar to verse 9, "for the witness of God is this, that He has borne witness concerning His Son". So the question is "What is the witness that God has borne witness to concerning His Son?" The answer is in verse 11: "And the witness is this; that God has given us eternal life, and this life is in His Son." I think the answer is in Matthew 12:28 also, but that will have to wait till another time as far as my thoughts are concerned. Good night. From the heart, Ray |
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1956 | Is this referencing the Holy Spirit? | 1 John 5:10 | Ray | 119772 | ||
Hi mommapbs, I am sorry that I caused you to think that I would try to link unbelief with blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. In other posts I have stated that blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is demonstrated by the Pharisees in Matthew 12:24 when they said that He "casts out demons only by Beelzebul the ruler of the demons". They were unbelievers but the actual blasphemy of the Holy Spirit was in their attributing the authority of Jesus to an unclean spirit or to Satan. 1) For Matthew 12:28 I interpret "Spirit" to be in the lower case. Here is my interpretation for what it is worth. Matthew 12:28, "But if I cast out demons by the *spirit of (God), then the kingdom of God has come upon you." Any comments? 2) Have you "penciled in" any upper case occurance of the "Witness" in your copy? Do you capitalize "Testimony" in 1 John 5:10? From the heart, Ray |
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1957 | Is this referencing the Holy Spirit? | 1 John 5:10 | Ray | 119826 | ||
Hi mommapbs, Thank you for the references. Here are a couple comparisons to consider. Matthew 12:24-39 John 5:30-34 Mattew 12:32b, "...but whoever shall speak against the (Holy) Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him;..." John 5:32, "There is (Another) who bears witness of Me,..." Parentheses mine for comparison. 1) John 5:32, Green's literal translation, "it is Another witnessing concerning Me, and I know that the witness which He witnesses concerning Me is true." John 5:32, NKJ Interlinear by Nelson Publishers, "Another is the [One] testifying about Me,..." (One) is in italics as being understood in the Greek in the Nelson copy. 2) Matthew 12:27, "And if I by Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? Consequently they shall be your judges. 28 But if I cast out demons by the Spirit [I would say **spirit] of (God), then the kingdom of God has come upon you." Luke 11:20, "But if I cast out demons by the **finger of (God), then the kingdom of God has come upon you." ** Stars and parentheses are mine for comparisons. If you can speak of the activity of Jesus, the will of God, and the power of the Holy Spirit, then I would think that you can consider the finger and the spirit of God. The activity, will, power, finger, and spirit all being in lower case. What do you think? From the heart, Ray |
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1958 | Is this referencing the Holy Spirit? | 1 John 5:10 | Ray | 119845 | ||
Hi mommapbs, You may be interested in looking then at Acts 17:29-31. I personally have "divine nature" penciled in my copy. :) From the heart, Ray |
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1959 | God has given: What is eternal life? | 1 John 5:11 | Ray | 136104 | ||
Hi BradK, The phrase before the verse that you are presenting here is a good comparison/contrast verse to the ones that I offered. John 10:28, "And **I give eternal life to them..." 1 John 5:11, "And the witness is this, that **God has given us eternal life..." John 17:2, "...**He may give eternal life." Thank you for that Scripture reference. May I offer this comparison also. John 17:3, "And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true (God), and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent." 1 John 5:20, "And we know that the Son of God has come, and has given us understanding, in order that we might know (Him) who is true,..." 1) How much can we equate eternal life with the word of God, the Scriptures? John 6:68, "Simon Peter answered Him, "Lord, to whom shall we go? **You have words of eternal life." From the heart, Ray |
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1960 | The 3 witnesses of 1 John 5:7-8? | 1 John 5:16 | Ray | 79706 | ||
Hi Estabon, Thank you for your excellent post, my friend. I liked it very much. Sorry for being so late in telling you so. From the heart, Ray |
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