Results 1221 - 1240 of 1459
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Results from: Notes Author: John Reformed Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1221 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45331 | ||
Hi Tim, Good question. My answer is the grace of God. Just as the rain falls on the just and the unjust. But God gives his grace for his own reasons, not because any deserve it. Everything He does is for His glory; for His eternal purpose. Even the sinful acts of man are preordained. They freely choose sin for the sake of evil, but God purposes it for good. Josephs brother for instance. Pilate,Herod, the Jews and gentiles who crucified Christ (Acts 4:27,28). Gotta Run, John |
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1222 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 45328 | ||
Guday Nik, As you have probably noticed, we have a broad spectrum of opinion on our forum. It's range is from the ridiculous to the sublime. Personally, I love it, despite my sinful frustration towards those who disagree with my impeccable logic and exegesis. In other words I've learned a lot through by interaction with others. Sadly, too many newcomers post but a few answers or questions and then disappear into the anonimmity of cyberspace. I'm relatively new myself, having been on the forum for just 2 months or so. What I'm trying to say is keep up the good work and do not grow weary in doing good. One question. Being upside down all the time, does'nt that bother you blokes? God Bless Nik, Bro. John |
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1223 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45321 | ||
Hi Tim, If one is to understand the 5 points of Calvinism he must first understand Total Depravity. Once that point is accepted as scriptural, the remaining points are more easily comprehended. You asked: would man have to always choose sin over righteousness? Yet, we know that not every sinner is as sinful as he can possibly be. Some go to greater depths of sin than others. So, it seems to me (based on this) that depravity doesn't not mean that even sinners always choose sin. Just curious how you view this! Total Depravity does not mean that man that each sinner is as totally or completely corrupt in his actions and thoughts as it is possible for him to be. Instead the adjective "total" is used to indicate thaat the whole of man's being is affected by sin.... The corruption extends to every part of man, his body and soul; sin has affected all (the totality) of man's faculties-his mind, his will, etc. As a result of this inborn corruption, the natural man is unable to do any spiritual good. (The 5 Points of Calvinism) Does man have to choose sin over righteousness? Yes. But he is not forced or coerced by God to to choose sin, for that would make God the author of sin. It is true that fallen man does do ethically good works. But these works do not equate to righteousness; "for without faith it is impossible to please God". The motive for the works are not to glorify God. At best they are an attempt to establish a seperate righteousness apart from God that will put Him under an obligation to bless the worker. Does this help? John |
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1224 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45275 | ||
Dear Tim, Praise God with me, for we do have Him in common. You said "Where we differ though is the question of whether 'spiritually dead' means 'unable to respond'." The calvinist does not deny but rather affirms that mankind does in fact know the truth. We believe that the witness of nature and the works of creation and providence so clearly reveal God that all men will be found without excuse before God. Hold on to your hat now. We believe that fallen man has the freedom to choose! However, because man's nature is corrupt and the desires of his heart are only wicked continually, he is unable to choose to surrender to God. Not because God prevents him, but because in his fallen state he has no desire to do so. That is why Jesus said "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him;". Men are damned, not because they did not know the truth, but because they suppress it. Man requires God's grace before he is able to desire salation. Faith is a spiritual attribute that is a gift of God given to those who He draws to Christ. I'll continue later. John |
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1225 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45237 | ||
Dear Cbjd (thats french for cdbj), Excuse moi, but what in the world are you talking about. I'm the one whoneeds an interpreter. Frerre Jeaque, Frere Jeaque,brother John , Brother John. I just got it |
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1226 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45236 | ||
Part Two Dear Tim, You wrote: On the other hand, there are many verses where people are asked orcommanded to receive. God commands us to do many things that we are unable to do. Mark 12:30 AND YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND, AND WITH ALL YOUR STRENGTH.' Matt 5:48 "Therefore you are to be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect." The fact of the matter is that without God's grace we can do nothing good. That is why heaven will be conspicuously empty of boasters. What I have been trying to prove is that calvinists have a very low opinion of mankind (including themselves) and a very high opinion of God. We do not contiually quote Calvin or any one of the reformers. Are appeal, ultimately, is always Scripture. The degree of corruption in Adam's race is far more radical than most evangelicals believe. And so I have posted just a few verses to prove our position is in harmony with the Bible. As you know there are many more unflattering verses I have not listed. I see Freewillism as a man centered theology. No matter what God wants, It is man who is the captain of his soul and the master of his fate. Salvation depends on man's will, and God can only try to save him. May I touch upon free will? What does it mean to you? Does it mean that man is a free moral agent. Free to do good or evil. Free to recieve Christ or reject Him. Is this what God says of man? Is unregenerate man free or is ruled by another? John 8:44 "You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. 1 John 5:19 We know that we are of God, and that the whole world lies in the power of the evil one. I've already quoted Eph 2:1,2 and there are others that I can cite if you wish that debunk the free moral agency of man. It seems a bit ironic that 1 john 5:19 contains the words "whole world", the same term that you love so well when it seemingly supports your position. I mean no ill will, but only mention it in passing. A bone of contention between us has been the arguement over whether or not God says that He has chosen to save some while not choosing to save others. Your conditon of belief being so stringent it has not been possible for me to present a single verse that meets your requirement. However, there are many truths in the Bible that may bededuced from the body of information that God has providentially made available in Scripture. But have no fear, I will respond, God willing. Due to the lateness of the hour and the dulling of my brain (which is not that sharp under the best of conditions) I bid you goodnight, Brother John Reformed |
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1227 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45228 | ||
Hello Tim, You wrote: the problem is that not one of the verses you quoted says that man is unable to respond to God's grace. This is an assumption based upon Calvin's view of God's sovereignty, not a Scripture verse. On the other hand, there are many verses where people are asked or commanded to receive. So, which do we believe? Scripture of course! I'm surprised you asked. Eph 2:1-5 And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved) In light of the fact that we were not physically dead, I think we are safe in saying that the death spoken of is spiritual death. Agree? Gen 6:5 Then the LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great on the earth, and that every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. Jer 17:9 "The heart is more deceitful than all else And is desperately sick; Who can understand it? I have cited the 2 verses above to show the univeresality of spiritual death. Need more? Just ask me, brother Tim. But I'm sure we agree on this point as well. Mark 7:21-23 "For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed the evil thoughts, fornications, thefts, murders, adulteries, deeds of coveting and wickedness, as well as deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride and foolishness. All these evil things proceed from within and defile the man." John 3:19-21 "This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil. For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. Thus far I have attempted to portray the Bibles view of man's corrupt nature. Admittedly, it is a rough sketch. I'm sure that further investigation will serve only to paint a more disgusting picture of fallen mankind. Agree? Given what we now know about man, what are the chances of his acceptance of the Gospel message. Rom 8:6-8 For the mind set on the flesh is death, but the mind set on the Spirit is life and peace, because the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God,FOR IT IS NOT EVEN ABLE TO DO SO, Rom 8:8 and those who are in the flesh cannot please God.(empasis is mine) How then, if we believe the Scripture are we to saved? By a faith that exists in a creature thus descibed? I don't see how. Job 15:14-16 "What is man, that he should be pure, Or he who is born of a woman, that he should be righteous? Behold, He puts no trust in His holy ones, And the heavens are not pure in His sight; How much less one who is detestable and corrupt, Man, who drinks iniquity like water! It is clear (at least to me) that man in his dead state cannot repent, believe the Gospel or come to Christ. I'll continue on my next post. John Reformed |
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1228 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45225 | ||
Dear CDBJ, Frankly, this is a new one on me. Perhaps you can supply the scripture from which your view is taken from. John |
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1229 | Aren't the elect commanded to repent? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45207 | ||
Hi Steve, Thanks for the input. It is of the utmost importance to properly interpret the terms used in Scripture. Language can bea tricky business, but by God's grace, we can arrive at the truth. That is why I believe context is such a vital element in interpreting the meaning of any particular verse. If someone presents me with a verse or verses that they wish to use to support their doctrine, I try to read the preceeeding verses and those that follow. In other words, everything that pertains to the topic. Many times we need to go to our concordance to discover the literal meaning from the original Hebrew or Greek. Not being a learned person myself, I also seek the opiions of teachers whom I respect (keeping in mind their own falibility). I do believe it pleases God when we search dilligently and faithfully. Thanks Again Steve, Brother John |
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1230 | Aren't the elect commanded to repent? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45200 | ||
Dear Tim, You contend that each and every time John uses the term "world" it indicates every individual in the world. If that is the case, please explain: John 17:25 "O righteous Father, although the world has not known You, yet I have known You; and these have known that You sent Me;" Obviously John is in this case speaking of the world in a different sense, even though he uses kosmos in this verse. It cannot mean all for that would exclude the prophets and every other believing person that had ever lived up to that point in time. Other examples from John: John 12:19 So the Pharisees said to one another, "You see that you are not doing any good; look, the world has gone after Him." John 14:17 that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you. John 16:20 "Truly, truly, I say to you, that you will weep and lament, but the world will rejoice; you will grieve, but your grief will be turned into joy. John 17:9 "I ask on their behalf; I do not ask on behalf of the world, but of those whom You have given Me; for they are Yours; 1 John 3:1 See how great a love the Father has bestowed on us, that we would be called children of God; and such we are. For this reason the world does not know us, because it did not know Him. I must get back to other responsibilities, but I would like to explore more closely John's use of the tern "world". Later Tim, John |
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1231 | Two "wills" of God? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45184 | ||
Dear Tim, I guess one man's exigesis is another man's isogesis. I embraced calvinism against my will. I set out to disprove the very thing that I now believe with all my heart and mind. That is: that God is sovereign over the affairs of man and that man has no veto power over His eternal purpose. I am sure you are familiar with the body of scripture that supports my belief. Ps 21:5 His glory is great through Your salvation, Splendor and majesty You place upon him. Ps 79:9 Help us, O God of our salvation, for the glory of Your name; And deliver us and forgive our sins for Your name's sake. Is 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things which have not been done, Saying, 'My purpose will be established, And I will accomplish all My good pleasure'; The very idea that God is helpless to save anyone that He chooses is to say God is weak. It is a low view of His ability. He does whatever He pleases and it is always in harmony with His attributes. The Bible says man is dead in sin and cannot even recieve spiritual things, never mind believe them! But the "freewiller" says man is not so dead that he cannot resond to God. Seems like a contradiction to me. Your Friend John |
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1232 | Aren't the elect commanded to repent? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45173 | ||
Hi Tim, You wrote: "I'm not sure I can make this any clearer my friend. John Owen's point is only valid if universal atonement and universal salvation are the same thing!!!" I do understand your point Tim, the problem is it is self-contradictory! Universal Atonement: Christ died to atone for the sins off all mankind. Universal Salvation: All mankind will be saved. I recognize that you reserve faith as the pre-requisite for anyone to recieve the benefit of the atonement. But that does not change the fact that failure to believe is sin. Easton's Bible Dictionary Atonement This word does not occur in the Authorized Version of the New Testament except in Romans 5:11, where in the Revised Version the word "reconciliation" is used. In the Old Testament it is of frequent occurrence. The meaning of the word is simply at-one-ment, i.e., the state of being at one or being reconciled, so that atonement is reconciliation. Thus it is used to denote the effect which flows from the death of Christ. But the word is also used to denote that by which this reconciliation is brought about, viz., the death of Christ itself; and when so used it means satisfaction, and in this sense to make an atonement for one is to make satisfaction for his offences (Exodus 32:30; Leviticus 4:26; 5:16; Numbers 6:11), and, as regards the person, to reconcile, to propitiate God in his behalf. Owens point is valid. If Christ achieved atonement for all the sins of mankind and unbelief is a sin, then why is the unbeliever judged? Please Tim, don't blame me if universal atonement does'nt make sense. Brother John |
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1233 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45166 | ||
Dear CDBJ, The fullest discourse of "Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit" is in Matt 12:24-37. If you study this doctrine in it's context, it explains what this sin is. I think you will find that it refers to the pharisees accusation that Christ cast out demons by the power of Satan. The unforgivble sin is the slanderous charge that calls the Holy Spirit demonic. blasphêmia; from 989; slander:--abusive language(1), blasphemies(4), blasphemous(2), blasphemy(6), railing(1), slander(3), slanders(1). If we reject the gospel (and die in our sins), all our sins will remain unforgiven. Perhaps you should reread John Owen's question and ponder a bit further on it. But, I warn you, it may change your theology. The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for, either: 1.All the sins of all men. 2.All the sins of some men, or 3.Some of the sins of all men. In which case it may be said: 1.That if the last be true, all men have some sins to answer for, and so, none are saved. 2.That if the second be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth. 3.But if the first be the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins? You answer, "Because of unbelief." I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it be (sin), then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not, He did not die for all their sins!" May God Bless Your Pondering, Brother John |
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1234 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 45139 | ||
Dear Congregrationalist, The only disagreement I have with you is the choice of your screen name. It takes poor typists like myelf too long to type. May I call you "Mate"? Or "Bloke" perhaps? (you do sound like a good Bloke). Your Mate, John Reformed |
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1235 | Aren't the elect commanded to repent? | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45116 | ||
Dear Tim, I'm not sure I follow your point my friend. I gave a reasoned reply - salvation is a gift which must be received. Universal atonement does not equal univsersal salvation, so Owen's point is not valid. Tim, my point is: Owens has anticipated your answer and asks "is this unbelief a sin, or is it not?". God has commanded all men to repent and come to faith in Christ. By their refusal to believe they sin against God. Owens asks: "If it be (sin) , then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? Please address Owens final question. Thanks, John |
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1236 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45070 | ||
Dear CDBJ, If both Tim and I both go after you, it's only because "we luv ya man"! God Bless John |
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1237 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 45067 | ||
Hi CDBJ, Are you refering to blasphemy of the Holy Spirit as the "sin (singular) of the world"? Please clarify. Your Brother, John (not Joe)Reformed |
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1238 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 44999 | ||
Hi Tim, Its me again! I have a brain teaser for you from that old puritan John Owens: The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for, either: 1.All the sins of all men. 2.All the sins of some men, or 3.Some of the sins of all men. In which case it may be said: 1.That if the last be true, all men have some sins to answer for, and so, none are saved. 2.That if the second be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth. 3.But if the first be the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins? You answer, "Because of unbelief." I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it be, then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not, He did not die for all their sins!" What say ye brother? Brother John |
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1239 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 44998 | ||
Hi Tim, You said: The only way I would ever convert to Calvin's way of thinking is if someone can produce verses which plainly (not based upon one's inference) that: 1) God does not desire to save all. 2) Christ did not die for all. 3) That not everyone can respond. Let's look at your first requirement. I do not offer one verse but an entire chapter; Romans 9. Now, I know you discard the calvinist's position on 9 based on the idea that Paul, in refering to Jacob and Esau, is speaking of nations and not indivduals. I disagree because Rom 9:6-8 clearly states: "But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel; nor are they all children because they are Abraham's descendants, but: "THROUGH ISAAC YOUR DESCENDANTS WILL BE NAMED." That is, it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants." The "children of the promise" are God's elect! The problem for the arminian is that the literal rendering of the text refutes his cherished theology. Egads! Face it brother Tim, there is no reason to "read" nations into this chapter. 9:3-6 For I could wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, MY KINSMAN ACCORDING TO THE FLESH, who are Israelites, to whom belongs the adoption as sons, and the glory and the covenants and the giving of the Law and the temple service and the promises, whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen. BUT it is not as though the word of God has failed. For they are NOT all Israel who are descended from Israel;" I (John Adams) am not an Israelite, but I am a son of Abraham. I am mentione in Romans 9 (children of the promise). Gal 3:7 Therefore, be sure that it is those who are of faith who are sons of Abraham. Gal 3:8-9 The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, "ALL THE NATIONS WILL BE BLESSED IN YOU. So then those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer. Once "nations" are properly rejected as an interpretation, the plain meaning of Ro 9 leaps from the page. He Reigns, John |
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1240 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 44989 | ||
Dear Tim, I inadvertantly lost, a somewhat time consuming, post I was sending you. I have taken the liberty of emailing the webpage to you. God Bless Tim, John |
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