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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | what is the importance of tongues? | Acts 2:4 | 1-2steve | 148207 | ||
First of all, I must apologize. I did not recognize the difference in the two. Even though I know that there is a difference, many that believe in speaking in tongues will declare this as evidence for their salvation (but these will also say that you can lose your salvation). So allow me to defend my position. 1. Starting in 1 Cor. 13. Verses 1-3 are hypothetical statements. There is no evidence of a "heavenly language". Everywhere in the entire bible that you see angels communicating, they are communicating in a language that the person understands.Isa. 6; Luke 1:26-38; Rev.5:11-14; etc... and anywhere that you see the angel of the Lord appear in Scripture. (And to add to verses 2 and 3, just ask yourself if Paul really could know "all" mysteries and have "all" knowledge. The answer is a resounding no. He was saying that even if he could do all these things, without love, it's vanity. And if he could, I'd sure like to see him explain the Trinity to me). 2. 13:10- first, tongues weren't just a bunch of put together syllables, it was literal languages (and "various" languages, not just a single language). In Acts 2:7-11, there are roughly 20 different dialects being spoken here. The language was an understandable language with the end result that about 3000 souls were saved because they "understood" what the disciples were saying, and because of speaking in their tongue, it gave Peter an oppritunity to present the gospel. This is what tongues are truly meant for. And secondly, there is supposed to be an interpreter. Now how many tongue speakers do you see today that have someone interpret what they say? They can't. How can you translate a bunch of jibberish? Also, if there is an interpreter present and he/she interprets what the one speaking in tongues is saying, the they should be able to translate it onto paper and interpret it into English. Right? 3.Paul declares it will be done away with when "that which is perfect comes". But what on earth does v. 11 have to do with it? He was saying that these sign gifts were for the baby Christians at that time. And when he matured they were no longer necessary. And by the time a.d. 100 came around, the N.T. was in circulation in the churches. There was no need for tongues (if you keep in context that tongues were for unbelievers as 14:22 clearly states) because the N.T. was complete and the gospel of Jesus Christ could be preached in the church(es). So what would the need for tongues be? What can one say that the bible doesn't? 4. Speaking in tongues places experience in front of the bible. The bible is clear in this matter. O.K., onto ch.14. Later on though, ya'll got me tired and my wife says I've been on the computer too long. Please don't take what I'm saying the wrong way, but as I've been tought, I was given 6 rules. And they are: 1,2,3) Context, context context. 4,5,6) Read, read read. In Christ steve |
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22 | what is the importance of tongues? | Acts 2:4 | 1-2steve | 148192 | ||
If we have to speak in tongues as evidence of our salvation, then you tell me, where does faith come in? If I recall right the bible doesn't say that Abraham spoke in tongues and it was counted to him as righteousness. No...He BELIEVED (faith). Besides that, speaking in tongues Today is just a bunch of thrown together syllables that make no sense. Find that in the bible. Every single verse that has the word glossa (tongue) except 2 (both are in Isaiah), the word is used of a HUMAN language. Not some cosmic mumbo jumbo. I take offence to this, because these people will exhalt themselves and look down on people who don't "speak in tongues" and, I and you are just as saved as they are. We were saved by faith through grace, not tongues. My evidence is my personal relationship with Jesus when I pray, read His word, and live life focused on Him. Tongues have only one purpose today and that was spelled out in 1 Cor. 14:4 a. This is a negative statement, not positive. Also remember that Paul wrote this letter because the Corinthian church was a carnal church. Just read some of the things they did. I'm sorry, but I can't sit idley by and let someone tell you a bunch of lies. Those 10 reasons seriously err from the Scriptures. May God's truth prevail. Sincerly, steve |
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23 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | 1-2steve | 148188 | ||
This is the note for Mark 14:36; take away this cup from me; nevertheless, not what I will, but what thou wilt: See Gill on Mat_26:39. |
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24 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | 1-2steve | 148182 | ||
Hi, Phyllis and/or Doc, I went to Matt.26:39 and copied just about a paragraph of what John Gill's commentary says. It's interesting that he uses both wrath and fury inclusive in this cup. Here's what he stated: "If it be possible, let this cup pass from me; meaning not only the hour, as it is called in Mark, the present season and time of distress, and horror; but all his future sufferings and death, which were at hand; together with the bearing the sins of his people, the enduring the curse of the law, and the wrath of God, all which were ingredients in, and made up this dreadful bitter cup, this cup of fury". But, (and I may be wrong) the cup represents the coming death that He knew was coming. The Expositors Bible Commentary states that the word "cup" (GK 4539) is regularly used as a metaphor of punishment and judgement (and they used all 5 references you gave.),and that Jesus prayed that God's wrath would be removed. But of course we all know the end result. He died. So He drank the cup of wrath that we deserve, so that we won't have to face eternal judgement. But like I said, I may be wrong. Acts 17:11. I don't know if this helps or created confusion, but it is a good question and discussion. Thanks for letting me partake in it! In Christ, steve |
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25 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | 1-2steve | 148118 | ||
Symbolically, the cup was God's wrath about to be poured out on His Son. | ||||||
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