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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is it translated "if", not "since"? | Matt 4:6 | Searcher56 | 15079 | ||
-Is there a translation thst says "since", not "if" ... becuase that is the literal translation. -Why don't translators do a better job on this word? |
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2 | Why is it translated "if", not "since"? | Matt 4:6 | Makarios | 15094 | ||
Nope. There are no English translations that I have access to that substitute the word "since" in place of the word "if" here in Matthew 4:6. According to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, the word "if" is as follows.. "(1487) if - Greek 'ei i': a primary particle of conditionality; if, whether, that, etc.:--forasmuch as, if, that, (al-)though, whether. Often used in connection or composition with other particles, especially as in 1489, 1490, 1499, 1508, 1509, 1512, 1513, 1536, 1537. See also 1437." Using the word "if" is pivotal here, since satan is hoping to engender a feeling in Jesus to "prove" Himself by casting Himself down. Using the word "since" would show that Satan ackowledges the fact that Jesus is, in fact, the Son of God, which would defeat satan's whole purpose. You have stated "Why don't translators do a better job on this word?". Who are you to judge which is the 'best way' to translate a passage? What credentials or certificates do you have? Do you have more wisdom than any translator who ever lived, since all the translations that I can find use "if" here instead of "since"? We would be blessed if there were a lot less of the "self appointed Bible experts" here present on this Forum. --Nolan |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Matt 4:6 | Author | ||
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Searcher56 | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Radioman | ||
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Searcher56 | ||
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angelface |