Results 421 - 440 of 558
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: retxar Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
421 | in ezekiel16-53 what does this mean ? | 1 Cor 6:11 | retxar | 25643 | ||
Ezekiel 16 is speaking of the judgement to come for Jerusalem’s sins. God was comparing there sins to those of Sodom and Samaria. They had little respect for Sodom and Samaria and thought themselves to be much superior than their “sisters”. God told them that the sins which they committed were more abominable and they would bear the judgement for it (Ezekiel 16:52). Their shame would be worse because they stood in judgement of their neighbors ( Mat 7:1-5). I think the verse you are questioning (Ezekiel 16:53) is prophesy speaking of their return from exile in Babylon. They would be lead back along side their “sisters” that they despised. God Bless, retxar |
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422 | ezk 16-53 | 1 Cor 6:11 | retxar | 25646 | ||
I don't think it does. I think it is speaking of their return from exile from Babylon. See my response under your other post. Another possible meaning: This could mean the opposite of restoration. Jeresulem's thinking was that Sodom and Samaria could never be restored. I think this would speak to them of the severity of God's judgement on them. "I will restore you when I restore your sisters". I.E. You will be restored when pigs fly! retxar |
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423 | restoration of sodom? | 1 Cor 6:11 | retxar | 25669 | ||
No. It says "When I bring back their captives". See my other post. retxar |
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424 | how do you accont for the word [however] | 1 Cor 6:11 | retxar | 25703 | ||
Greetings sowvic, I don't see the word "however" in my bible. "However", I don't think it makes any difference either way. I think what I have already answered deserves your consideration. What are you driving at? Maybe you need to start another thread, as this is off subject from the original question and is really getting strung out. Thanks, retxar |
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425 | Please tell me: What does "filled" mean? | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 3565 | ||
Joh 14:17 "the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him; but you know Him, for He dwells with you and WILL BE IN YOU. (disciples will recieve indwelling of HS) Joh 20:22 And when He had said this, He breathed on them, and said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit. (disciples recieve indwelling of HS) Act 1:5 "for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now." (promise of filling of HS) Remember the diciples already have HS living in them, but they are not FILLED. Act 1:8 "But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; (promise of filling of HS) Act 2:4 And they were all FILLED with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. (filling of HS) | ||||||
426 | Baptism of the Holy Spirit after reborn? | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 3632 | ||
You are correct in the fact that the disciples already had the Holy Spirit living in them before Pentecost (John 20:22), but they were not baptized with the Holy Spirit. This first occurred at Pentecost, just as Jesus promised (Acts 1:5). This could not have been a one time occurrence with the disciples as the only recipients, as you suggest. Did the disciples go “to the end of the Earth?” (Acts 1:8) The account of tongues at Pentecost is the only time I recall where tongues were actually understood by someone other than God, so this could have been a miracle of hearing, as well as evidence of the Baptism of Holy Spirit as promised. Note: vs6 "everyone HEARD them speak in his own language" Note: vs8 "we HEAR, each in our own language" Note: vs11 "we HEAR them speaking in our own tongues.” The utterances of praise that were given at Pentecost were real languages? Maybe, maybe not. A mistake to equate this with any specific gift? I don’t think it’s a mistake. Neither does the Word. (Acts11:17) No mention whatsoever (here or elsewhere) of anyone speaking in some kind of "heavenly" language being connected with the Holy Spirit? Huh, I don’t know about that. (1Cor14:2) 1Cor13:1 “tongues of men and of angels” an exaggeration used for emphasis? I guess you might could read that into this scripture. I have read JM commentary also. Baptism of Holy Spirit to be “spontaneous event initiated by the Spirit” yes -- “not led, encouraged or brought on by any action of man?” Certainly not forbidden. (Acts 8:14-15) I will end on this note: This is not meant as an attack on my part, just as you have said it was not an attack on your part. I accept that, PLEASE do the same. You admit that a separate experience of being filled with the Spirit is possible, so I assume you cannot deny with any Biblical bases, only personal experience or observation. There is not much talk on this forum of personal experiences or even personal relationships with Jesus. I assure you, I have both. (Not to imply AT ALL that others do not have). Most of the talk is on theological issues, which will only take someone so far. Acts 15:8 says "So God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us. Notice the Holy Spirit was not given because of knowledge, but the HEART. I will make this deal with you. I won’t try to prove the Bible with any of my experiences or lack of them, or anybody else’s. My experiences or lack of them do not prove or disprove the Bible. The Bible stands on it’s own. If it does not line up with the Word, throw it out. |
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427 | Baptism of the Holy Spirit after reborn? | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 3970 | ||
Sorry I came across as I was seeking to debate. I was not. Sorry. I was only expressing my beliefs, as you, which I base on scripture, not experience. A few more points to ponder, and I will shut up. If Acts 2 does not mention the baptism of the Holy Spirit, where is Jesus’s promise fulfilled in Act 1:5? 1Cor 14:2 says “For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for NO ONE understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries”. I can’t understand how anyone could say tongues could be a known world languages, based on 1Cor 14? I have heard testimonies as such, but I can’t see how anyone could use 1Cor 14 to back it up. As far as the tongues in Acts 2, I said “this COULD have been a miracle of hearing”. Please don’t think I do not believe the disciples could not have spoken in real foreign languages. I was just giving another possibility that would be consistent with other accounts of tongues in scripture. In Jesus Love |
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428 | Baptism of the Holy Spirit after reborn? | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 4012 | ||
Thanks melchizedekau for your words of concern. Please take note of what I have said earlier in this forum: “I believe in the Baptism of the Holy Spirit as Jesus promised in Acts1. That promise bore witness as being true thru out Acts (2,8,10,11,19). I believe it is still true today and is verified by the initial evidence of speaking in tongues as the Holy Spirit gives utterance.” I think that states my position pretty well. I think we might be in the same book, but certainly not on the same page. I think it might help if we could read the previous posts, before we respond with any sort of judgmental comments. Notice I said read the post, not READ INTO the post. When I say “I think” I am stating “my opinion” which does not mean very much. Please don’t think I think you need to believe my opinion, unless the scripture references and the Holy Spirit tell you otherwise. Acts2 : Please re-read my previous post. Sorry if I seemed to be saying something I did not mean. Please believe me, I was only giving another POSSIBLE interpretation, that’s all, not my theology. I can’t even spell theologian, but now look at me, I are one! Just kidding Bro! Anyway, here is my last explanation (I hope) of what I said. Many people claim the tongues in Acts 2 were different from the other examples in scripture, because they were actually understood. ALL I am saying is what I have already said, there is also the POSSIBILITY there could have been a miracle of understanding going on also, because all DID NOT understand (vs13). In Jesus’s Love |
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429 | Baptism of the Holy Spirit after reborn? | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 4039 | ||
Right on Bro! At salvation the HS is the baptizer, at Baptism of/with HS, Jesus is the baptizer, just as you stated. Thanks for the book reference. Another reliable source of info on the subject is http://angelic.org Thanks Jesus Lives! |
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430 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 4739 | ||
Hi JVH0212, just a quick note. I know your post here is a few days old, so sorry if I'm bringing up something someone has already brought to your attention. You are correct, Acts 2:4 does not use the word "baptized." However, was this not the baptism with the Holy Spirit as Jesus promised in Acts 1:5? Didn't Jesus also gave a description of the baptism with the Holy Spirit in Acts 1:8? Was Jesus talking about receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized into the body of Christ at salvation as in 1 Cor 12:13? I think not, as the disciples had already received the Holy Spirit in John 20:22 as promised in John 14:17, but they had not been baptized/filled with the Holy Spirit. Thanks Jesus is Lord |
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431 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 4764 | ||
Thanks JVH0212, I am printing out all the posting you referenced. I am pretty busy, so it may take me a day or two to get back to you. I will look at each one before I respond. You are very thorough, thank you. Jesus Lives! |
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432 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 4826 | ||
Hi JVH0212. I’m finally getting a chance to get back to you. Thank you for your references. They help me know where you are coming from. I really enjoyed you’re personal sharing, as it helped me realize we believe a lot closer than I originally thought. Please consider, if you will, a couple of differing views, on John 20:22, and Acts 2:4. Please consider my thoughts on Acts 2:4 “And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.” I guess this is a repeat of what I have already said, but I will expound. You quote the MacArthur Study Bible here which says Acts 2:4 is NOT the “baptism with the Holy Spirit”, rather it is the “filling with the Holy Spirit”. I agree, all were filled with the Holy Spirit. This cannot be disputed, as this is what Acts 2:4 says. However, how can one possibly say this is not the baptism with the Holy Spirit, as this is exactly what Jesus called it? Acts 1:5 "for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now." Was Jesus talking about receiving the Holy Spirit upon baptism into the body of Christ at salvation as in 1 Cor 12:13? No! Jesus explained what He meant by “baptized with the Holy Spirit” in Act 1:8 "But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth." I can say “filled with the Holy Spirit” instead of “baptized with the Holy Spirit” till Jesus comes back, if I need to. I would rather have someone understand exactly what I am talking about, rather than having to guess. However, if someone says “baptized with the Holy Spirit”, instead of “baptized into the body of Christ”, I am going to think of “baptized with the Holy Spirit” as Jesus identified in Acts 1:5 and described in Acts 1:8. Please consider my thoughts on John 20:22. “And when He had said this, He breathed on them, and said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit.” You quote the MacArthur Study Bible again here. It says the disciples did not actually receive the Holy Spirit until Pentecost. If we interpret scripture with scripture here, I see no way the disciples COULD NOT have received the Holy Spirit when Jesus spoke the words "Receive the Holy Spirit.” Romans 10:9 says that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. This is the very first time the disciples were able to believe in their heart “that God has raised Him from the dead”. If we look down at verse 28 we see Thomas saying to Jesus, "My Lord and my God!" Thomas certainly “believed in his heart” and also “confessed with his mouth” that Jesus is Lord. Jesus confirms Thomas’s belief in verse 29; "Thomas, because you have seen Me, you have believed.” I feel the disciples HAD to “Receive the Holy Spirit”, just as Jesus said to them, in order to be true believers, which Jesus said they were. One more thought on John 20:22. Notice the words “He breathed on them”. If we determine that the disciples did not receive the Holy Spirit here, that statement whould have to be brushed off as in-significant. I think this is very significant and cannot be looked over. Every place in scripture I know of (Gen2:7, Job33:4, Ps33:6, Eze37:9 for example), that speaks of the breath of God, signifies life. I think, just as God breathed the breath of life in Adam as the first man, Jesus breathed the breath of eternal life into these first believers under grace, by giving them the seal of the Holy Spirit. What do you think? Thanks Bro, and God Bless! |
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433 | Only 900 "baptism" posts | 1 Cor 12:13 | retxar | 26735 | ||
You forgot one. Did Adam and Eve have belly buttons? retxar |
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434 | why desire faith, healing, miracles, etc | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29010 | ||
I think it would be wise to accept any gift God desired to give us, and not turn our nose up at any, even tongues. To do otherwise is to say we know more than the Holy Spirit, as it is His determination, not ours (1Co 12:11). retxar |
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435 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29425 | ||
Greetings algumwood! Welcome to studybible forumsville! I think I could agree with all you are saying here, except for your take on Acts 19:2. I also believe these 12 disciples here were true believers. They would not have been called “disciples” unless they were in fact true believers. However, there is no way they could be true believers unless they had also received the Holy Spirit (Joh 7:39, Rom 8:9, Rom 8:16, 2Co 1:22, Eph 1:13, 1Jo 5:10). These disciples probably came to believe under the teaching of Apollos, which would have definitely been after the cross. So according to John 7:39, they HAD to have received the Holy Spirit also. Their answer in Act 19:2 was one of ignorance, and not necessarily one of truth. This lines up with Acts 18:24-28 that gives some background on some of Apollos’s earlier teaching, in which these disciples were probably under. Apollos was not aware that Jesus’s death and resurrection was something that had already happened, rather than just a promise, until he was told different by Aquila and Priscilla (Acts 18:26). This would explain these disciples answer here when they said they had not even heard of the Holy Spirit. They had not heard of the Holy Spirit because Apollos’s was not aware that the Holy Spirit had been given. What they received here was not the indwelling of the Holy Spirit as Jesus’s disciples received in John 20:22, and they no doubt received when they believed. What they received was the filling of the Holy Spirit as Jesus’s disciples received in Acts 2:4 and the Samaritans received in Acts 8:14-17. retxar |
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436 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29428 | ||
1Co 12:1 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I do not want you to be ignorant Why would anyone turn their nose up at ANY gift from God? |
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437 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29460 | ||
Good day my friend! 1Co 14:2 For he who speaks in another language speaks not to men, but to God; for no one understands; but in the Spirit he speaks mysteries. (WEB) I have read the WEB (World English Bible) and I like it! It translates tongues exactly as you have suggested. However, it still says that at least in some instances, if not in every single instance, that the language spoken is a mystery, only understood by God, and no one else. retxar |
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438 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29464 | ||
Right on, bro! We need to use the gifts He gives us and let others use the gifts He gives them and realize that all the gifts He gives are good gifts (Mat 7:11). retxar |
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439 | Are the gifts of the spirit for today? | 1 Cor 13:8 | retxar | 8764 | ||
Yes, Joel 2:28, Joel 2:29, Acts 2:17, Acts 2:18, 1Cor 1:7, 1Cor 1:8, 1Cor 12:7, 1Cor 12:28, 1Cor 13:10, 1Cor 13:12, Eph 4:13, 1John 3:2 Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is. Until this is fulfilled, the gifts of the Spirit are vital and required and no scripture suggest they will cease before this time. God bless! retxar |
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440 | IS TONGUES FOR TODAY? | 1 Cor 14:5 | retxar | 55022 | ||
good site, good info | ||||||
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