Results 21 - 31 of 31
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: mouse2 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | need for a bible-anyone | Bible general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 51073 | ||
Let’s examine the thief on the cross. Seems like a few questions immediately spring up with the thief issue. 1. Is the thief saved? 2. Was he baptized or not? (although this question is not relevant) 3. Does this apply to us today? (very relevant!) 1. What does Jesus say in Luke 23:43? 2. My whole premise is that this question is irrelevant, because of the change of covenants, but for the sake of argument it needs to be addressed. Nothing in the Scriptures tells us he was or was not baptized, but we do know this about him: he knew of the Messiah and His kingdom to come, Luke 23:42 “Jesus…when You come into Your kingdom!” He died the same day the Lord Jesus did. Both living under the same covenant, the same covenant kept and observed by our Lord up until His death. A new covenant was made and that covenant went into effect after the death of Jesus. The new covenant was His last will and testament. When does a will go into effect? When the testator dies, right? Then his will is read and executed. When Christ died, His will was read (Mark 16:15) and executed (Mark 16:16; Acts 2). 3. Whether the thief was or was not baptized has no bearing on our salvation, for we come after the cross. What Christ did before the cross, in no way nullifies the requirements of His will after the cross. Luke 24:47 says what? Repentance and forgiveness of sins. Repentance too is a requirement towards salvation. Faith does not stand alone. Matthew 28:19-20 who is being taught here? Verse 20 “teaching them all that I commanded you; and lo I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” We must have faith to obey the Lord’s commands. Is that not the greatest manifestation of faith: obedience to His commands? You wrote: Wow...what a misuse of a verse! So now we should conclude that the "faith, NOT works" passages plus the "works" passages, equals faith plus works! Something there just doesn't seem to add up. Let me go get my calculator... Wherein does obeying God’s commands constitute works or boasting in works? How is it that I have, as you say, misused the verse? If you do indeed believe in Psalm 119:160, how is it you ignore what it says? Why is it you refuse to acknowledge the conjunction “and” in Mark 16:16, in Acts 2:38, etc? Read Gal 3:23-27. What was said of those in verse 26? Who were they? Verse 27 continues to define that group. What specification in verse 27 is noted about those mentioned in verse 26? Mouse2 |
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22 | need for a bible-anyone | Bible general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 51439 | ||
You wrote: The Old (Mosaic) Covenant was never a means of salvation. So why do you keep repeating that the thief was saved under the Old Covenant? Old covenant system. Old covenant was not designed to cover the cost of sin. Gal 3:24 says it was a what? The old covenant time and again pointed towards a more perfect sacrifice to come, to a new covenant: Isaiah 53; Acts 3:24-26; Jeremiah 31:34; Deut 18:15. The old covenant promised forgiveness would come, but its sacrificial system did not forgive sin. Heb 10:1-10. Obedience to the old covenant system of sacrifice was in faith in the promise to come. Without this obedience, there was condemnation. So then, what is the point of the sacrificial system? It was commanded (Heb 10:8 “..according to the Law…). The new covenant is based and built on Christ’s sacrifice. Heb 9. So the thief on the cross was saved in his obedience to the old covenant criteria. We are not commanded today to offer bulls, lambs, or goats; a system the Jewish Christians wanted to return to. The whole book of Hebrews points to the superiority of Christ and the new covenant. Old covenant required sacrifices in obedience to God for the promise to come. The new covenant requires obedience to the commands laid out in the New Testament to lay hold to the promise fulfilled in Christ. Mark 16:16 You wrote: If the New Covenant was Jesus' last will and testament as you say, whose last will and testament was the Old Covenant? The old covenant was not a “last will” . It was a shadow of the things to come (Heb 8:5-6; 10:1). You wrote: And as that verse says, no conditions can be added to a covenant once it is ratified. Nothing is being added to this covenant. This is a new covenant: Heb 8:13. it is the new covenant to which we are accountable. Again, what is the point of the sacrificial system? Did God not design this system? Then why are we questioning whether baptism is required for salvation? 1 Peter 3:21 “Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-through the resurrection of Jesus Christ…” Mark 16:16 again that “and” seems to be a conjunction, not an option. Luke 24:47 says repentance and forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name from Jerusalem, where we find in Acts 2, Peter and the others preaching the gospel. Acts 2:36 we have “know for certain” believe, have faith. Acts 2:37 “…what shall we do?” Acts 2:38 “Repent and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins…” Acts 2:41 “So then, those who had received his word were baptized; …” You wrote: If we must keep every last requirement of His will in order to be saved, then none of us save Christ will be in heaven, because we all still continually fall short of His righteous requirements. Sounds a lot like Luke 18:26. "Wherein does obeying God’s commands constitute works or boasting in works?" You wrote: You are kidding, right? Works in the sense of as if I had done something to earn or merit my salvation. As if by being baptized, I have done something to earn my salvation without God. There are works of the flesh (Gal 5:19-21), there are works of the spirit (Gal 5:22-23), there are works of merit (Eph 2:9), etc. Perhaps I should rephrase it for you: wherein does obeying God’s commands constitute boasting in works? Mouse2 |
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23 | need for a bible-anyone | Bible general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 51440 | ||
Part2: As far as the verses you quoted: "So then, my beloved, just as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your salvation with fear and trembling; for it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure." --Philippians 2:13 (works of salvation) "What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him?" --James 2:14 (where is your fruit?) This individual is not bearing the fruit of his salvation. He is claiming faith, but is not displaying any. "For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them." --Ephesians 2:10 (again, bearing fruit, serving, doing what is expected of one claiming Christ) If I don’t bear fruit-will this affect my salvation? "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father." --John 14:12 Greater miracles than Jesus performed? (miracles, works of evidence, proof) You wrote: Repentance is a requirement and component of true saving faith. So is baptism. Faith in what God has commanded is going to do what He says it will. You wrote: God, however, knows whether He has worked saving faith in me or not (1 Samuel 16:7; 1 Corinthians 4:5), and does not need the outward manifestations before he can credit me with Christ's righteousness. So, did the Israelites need to “outwardly manifest” obedience with circumcision? God sought to put Moses to death for failing to circumcise his son. Exodus 4:24-26 And before you cry irrelevant, is it not a parallel to your claim above? You wrote: I do not ignore Psalm 119:160. I said you misused by alleging that "the sum" being described in the verse means that passages that say that God's people are saved through faith, specifically excluding works, can be combined with passages commanding us to obey God, to conclude that we are indeed declared righteous on the basis of something we do (actually a LOT of somethings, according to you). It means that the Bible is not a series of contradictions from the OT to NT or vice versa. All the Scriptures are in harmony. One passage is not to be elevated above another, but we need to see the harmony in it. Not to say “…but…” There are no “buts” in Scripture. Hopefully you caught that point and I am not going to get a response showing me the word “but “ in Scripture! Mouse2 |
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24 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 51443 | ||
I read your post as you suggested and here is my response: You wrote: "We are justified through FAITH." Faith in the promise fulfilled by Christ. You wrote:"We are sons of God through FAITH in Christ Jesus. " Wouldn't tht require obedience to His word? You wrote: "Where does this say that baptism is a condition of justification or adoption? " Gal 3:26-27 You wrote: "All of those whom Paul is addressing were baptized." Why if it was not essential? You wrote: "The Israelites were declared righteous not by following the Law of Moses,but by believing God." huh? Believing and obeying. You wrote: "It says 3 times in this passage alone that faith is the instrument God uses for our justification and adoption. Where is the word "alone" found? You wrote: "Show me one single passage that uses the word "justification" and "baptism" in the same verse, and I will recant of my "error." " What is justification? Doesn't justification and forgiveness equate? Romans 4:1-8. Baptism is linked with forgiveness. Mouse2 |
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25 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 51445 | ||
You wrote: "Thus my suggestion -- and I give it without malice -- is that all of you who are of this feather stow away your doctrinal issues in an old trunk someplace and join in and interact, if you wish, with the other users on other biblical topics." Your comment in and of itself is a doctrine. Will you "stow away" your faith only docrine? Would Paul or Jesus followed your advice? 2 Tim 4:2-4 Offended by the truth? Gal 4:16 "...that are not nearly so divisive..." Like what? Jesus' teachings are divisive. Matt 10:34 I have to agree with Jesus' response to the Pharisees seeking to silence Jesus' disciples. Luke 19:40 Mouse2 |
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26 | bible reference to support remarrying | NT general Archive 1 | mouse2 | 50234 | ||
I believe Matthew 5:32 answers your question. There is an innocent party and a guilty party. The innocent party may remarry. The guilty party cannot. If a man's wife commits adultery, he may put her away, and remarry. If a man marries a put away woman, he commits adultery. Matthew 19:9 also echoes the Scriptural grounds for divorce. I hope I have presented God's requirements clearly. Mouse2 |
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27 | Need To find Scripture | Rom 10:9 | mouse2 | 37557 | ||
Hello, I believe the passage to which you may be referring is 2 Peter 2:20-22. | ||||||
28 | Need To find Scripture | Rom 10:9 | mouse2 | 37572 | ||
We change our lives to align to God's Holy word. Acts is an excellent book to read and study about salvation. Acts describes what God expects from us, the conditions for our salvation. The gospel is simple indeed, but there is more than believing. James 2:19 tells us "the demons also believe, and shudder." Read the conversions of Acts, in it we see the need to 1. hear the Word 2. believe the Word 3. confess that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God 4. Repent of our sins 5. Be baptized for the remission of those sins. You are right. God is not confusing, nor a God of confusion, Satan is. Things we use to accept are no longer acceptable. God gave the Great Commission Matt 28:18-20 or Mark 16:15-16. Sincerely, Mouse2 |
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29 | AA agnostic wants practical proof of God | Rom 10:17 | mouse2 | 37938 | ||
I don't know of any "simple" methods or steps, but the Gospel of John is an excellent starting point. I also know of a website that has "sermons for the skeptical" if you are interested. I don't know if you are allowed to post website addresses. I could not find anything in the TOU prohibiting it though. | ||||||
30 | uses of drugs | 1 Cor 6:19 | mouse2 | 37569 | ||
As far as I know there isn't any scripture that says don't use dangerous drugs. I'm not sure what you mean by soft drugs. But I believe from 1 Cor 6:19-20, we can infer we are not to pollute our bodies. In fact 1 Cor 6:12-20 makes excellent points. Let me clarify that I am in no way including medications to make us well. I am speaking about illicit/illegal drugs. | ||||||
31 | Pastors same as preachers?. | 1 Cor 14:40 | mouse2 | 43407 | ||
I notice the words "preacher" and "pastor" are used interchangeably. I can't find that in Scripture. I understand "preacher" to be synonymous with "evangelist". I understand "pastor" to be synonymous with, "bishop, elder, overseer". Eph 4:11 uses pastor separate and apart from evangelist or preacher. Note also: From beavertonchurchofchrist.net "Commonly Asked Questions" The title 'Pastor' applies to the same group of men referred to as elders or bishops (Acts 20:17,28; 1 Peter 5:1-3). 2. There was always a plurality of "pastors" in every congregation (Acts 14:23; 20:17; Phil. 1:1). 3. We never find a congregation which is be shepherded by just one pastor. We never find pastors overseeing more than one congregation (1 Peter 5:2). We never find 'youth' pastors or 'senior' pastors. And we never find women serving as pastors. The qualifications are specific and include the qualification of being a man, who is the husband of one wife, having children who are believers (1 Timothy 3:1-4; Titus 1:5-9). My hope is that this would add some clarity. |
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