Results 481 - 500 of 7732
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: kalos Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
481 | name Jehovah | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111066 | ||
The name YHWH is used approximately 169 times in the book of Genesis alone. God announced His name to Abram. Genesis 15:7-8 (ESV) And he (God) said to him (Abram), "I am the LORD (Hebrew YHWH) who brought you out from Ur of the Chaldeans to give you this land to possess." [8] But he said, "O LORD (Hebrew YHWH) GOD, how am I to know that I shall possess it?" He announced it to Hagar, Sarai's maid. Genesis 16:11 (ESV) And the angel of the Lord said to her, "Behold, you are pregnant and shall bear a son. You shall call his name Ishmael, because the LORD (Hebrew YHWH) has listened to your affliction." |
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482 | falling away | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111365 | ||
Here are a couple of things that are impossible. It is impossible for God to lie (Heb 6:18). It is impossible for the Bible to contradict itself. Who is wrong -- Paul or Jesus? Neither. Who is right -- Paul or Jesus? Both. |
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483 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111863 | ||
My reply is not meant as an answer, but perhaps it will help clarify the question. If I understand your question properly, what you are talking about is what the translators of the NET Bible have avoided doing. In this version the OT is translated to say and mean what it meant to the readers of the period in which each book was written. It is not translated in light of our knowledge of the NT. An example follows. 'Isaiah 7:14. This verse has also seen a great deal of discussion in the history of interpretation. The text of the verse from the NET Bible is as follows: 'Look, this young woman is about to conceive and will give birth to a son. You, young woman, will name him Immanuel. 'The most visible issue surrounding this verse is the translation of the Hebrew word . . . The NET Bible uses the phrase “young woman,” while many translations use the word “virgin.” The arguments center upon two main points: the actual meaning of the term as it is used in Hebrew, and the use of this verse in the New Testament. 'There is a great deal of debate about the actual meaning of the Hebrew word. However, in the New Testament when this verse is cited in Matthew 1:23 the Greek word parqevno" (parqenos) is used, and this word can mean nothing but “virgin.” Therefore, many people see Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy about the virgin birth with Matthew 1:23 serving as a “divine commentary” on the Isaiah passage which establishes its meaning. The interplay of these issues makes a resolution quite complex. 'It is the opinion of the translators and editors [of the NET Bible] that the Hebrew word used in Isaiah 7:14 means “young woman” and actually carries no connotations of sexual experience, so the grammatical context of the verse in the Old Testament is in our opinion fairly straightforward. 'Neither does the historical context of Isaiah 7:14 point to any connection with the birth of the Messiah: in its original historical context, this verse was pointing to a sign for King Ahaz that the alliance between Syria and Israel which was threatening the land of Judah would come to nothing. 'The theological context of Isaiah 7:14 is also limited: it is a presentation of God’s divine power to show himself strong on behalf of his people. The role or birth of the Messiah does not come into view here. So the historical and theological contexts of the verse support the grammatical: the Hebrew word means “young woman” and should be translated as such. Within the book of Isaiah itself, however, the author begins to develop the theological context of this verse, and this provides a connection to the use of the passage in Matthew. 'In Isaiah 8:9-10 the prophet delivers an announcement of future victory over Israel’s enemies; the special child Immanuel, alluded to in the last line of v. 10, is a guarantee that the covenant promises of God will result in future greatness. The child mentioned in Isaiah 7:14 is a pledge of God’s presence during the time of Ahaz, but he also is a promise of God’s presence in the future when he gives his people victory over all their enemies. 'This theological development progresses even further when another child is promised in Isaiah 9:6-7 who will be a perfect ruler over Israel, manifesting God’s presence perfectly and ultimately among his people. The New Testament author draws from this development and uses the original passage in Isaiah to make the connection between the child originally promised and the child who would be the ultimate fulfillment of that initial promise. The use of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:23 draws upon the theological development present in the book of Isaiah, but it does not change the meaning of Isaiah 7:14 in its original context. 'The editors expect to receive criticism, particularly on this passage, from those who are against all modern translations. Our central motivation, however, is faithfulness to the original Hebrew text and context in this instance. While a rendering of “virgin” in Isa 7:14 might lead to wider acceptance, we believe that this kind of acceptance of traditional renderings would not be pleasing to God. The Bible’s clear statements affirming the virgin birth of Christ are not in question here by either the NET Bible or its translators—it is merely a question of which is the most faithful English rendering of the meaning of the original text of Isa 7:14 in Hebrew. 'The editors of the NET Bible believe that a translation which is ultimately the most faithful to the original text will ultimately prove more useful in both evangelism and ministry by an unswerving focus on accuracy to the original Biblical texts. Ultimately, it is our faith in our sovereign God that causes us to believe that faith is strengthened, not threatened, by faithfulness to the original.' (http://netbible.com/netbible/index.htm) |
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484 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111897 | ||
Ed: I agree with you. In fact, in the quote I posted no one claims that Matthew misinterpreted Isaiah 7:14 when he quoted it. No one claims that Matthew took literary liberties with it. By the way, if I thought the translators of the NET Bible or any other version based their decisions on their subjective feelings, I wouldn't have anything to do with that translation. Bless you, kalos |
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485 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111900 | ||
Also, please note that neither the question nor my answer was primarily about Isaiah 7:14. My answer was about the principles of interpretation of the translators of the NET Bible. Isaiah 7:14 is merely an example. The note is not about which translation of that verse is the right one. What I quoted does not assert that the NET Bible translation philosophy (approach) is the One Right Way. It acknowledges that different translators have different goals and methods in their work. The NET translators are merely explaining their approach and the reason for it. This relates directly to the original question asked by Dalcent. Grace to you, my friend, kalos |
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486 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111904 | ||
From the quote I posted: " Within the book of Isaiah itself, however, the author begins to develop the theological context of this verse, and this provides a connection to the use of the passage in Matthew." "The New Testament author draws from this development and uses the original passage in Isaiah to make the connection between the child originally promised and the child who would be the ultimate fulfillment of that initial promise. The use of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:23 draws upon the theological development present in the book of Isaiah... |
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487 | "Did I say that?" --B. Goldwater | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111947 | ||
"Did I do that?" -- S. Urkel To EdB, Hank, and others: Please note that neither the Question nor my Answer was primarily about Isaiah 7:14. My answer was about certain principles of translation. Isaiah 7:14 is merely an example. My original Answer is not about which translation of that verse is the right one. Frankly, my dears, I don't care which version of Isa 7:14 is the right one. That was never my point. I posted an Answer about principles of translation and got a debate over Isa 7:14. To balance things, I guess I should post a Note about Isa 7:14. Hopefully, I would then get a discussion about principles of translation. I admit that I made a mistake. My mistake was to make any reference to Isa 7:14, which was used as an EXAMPLE, not as the main point of my post. I should have known that my mention of Isa 7:14 would trigger controversy and that as soon as people saw the verse in Isaiah, they would forget what the post was really about, just as quickly as snow melts when it hits warm pavement. Silly me! Color me Sorrowful (kalos) |
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488 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112202 | ||
Makarios: When anyone interprets an OT passage, emphasizing what is revealed in the NT while downplaying or ignoring altogether the historical context of the OT passage, does it result in a more literal rendering? Or is the result less literal? Grace to you, kalos |
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489 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112205 | ||
Correction. Makarios: In the first line of the following I've changed "interprets" to "translates" so that the corrected wording is: When anyone TRANSLATES an OT passage, emphasizing what is revealed in the NT while downplaying or ignoring altogether the historical context of the OT passage, does it result in a more literal rendering? Or is the result less literal? Grace to you, kalos |
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490 | Why don't we address God as Yahweh? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112289 | ||
The only proper name for God [Boris Cat: This does not directly address your question, but is posted to provide background on the name YHWH. --kalos] '“Yahweh” [YHWH] is not one of God’s names—it is his only name. Other titles, like “El Shadday,” are not strictly names but means of revealing Yahweh.' (Study note at Exodus 6:3, The NET Bible, http://www.bible.org/netbible/exo6_notes.htm) The name 'YHWH' appears almost 7,000 times in the OT. However, in the KJV YHWH is usually translated as 'LORD.' 'Yahweh/Yah (or Jehovah). yhwh (or JHVH), the tetragrammaton because of its four letters, is, strictly speaking, the only proper name for God. It is also the most frequent name, occurring in the Old Testament 6,828 times (almost 700 times in the Psalms alone). Yah is a shortened form that appears fifty times in the Old Testament, including forty-three occurrences in the Psalms, often in the admonition "hallelu-jah" (lit. praise Jah). English Bibles represent the name yhwh by the title "LORD" (written in capitals to distinguish it from "lord" [adonai]. The Septuagint rendered yhwh as kyrios (Lord).' ____________________ (Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology, http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/BakersEvangelicalDictionary/bed.cgi). |
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491 | Why don't we address God as Yahweh? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112301 | ||
Tim: Sharp observation. But consider this: Exodus 34:14 NAS. --for you shall not worship any other god, for the LORD, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God -- Amplified. For you shall worship no other god; for the Lord, Whose name is Jealous, is a jealous (impassioned) God, New English Translation. "For you must not worship any other god, for the Lord, whose name[8] is Jealous, is a jealous God. "[8]Here, too, the emphasis on God's being a jealous God is repeated (see Exod 20:5). The use of 'name' here is to stress that this is his nature, his character." The Hebrew word "Shem" (Strong's #08034) here translated "name" has more than one meaning. It can be translated "name; reputation; memory; renown" (Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1984). Grace to you, kalos |
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492 | Why don't we address God as Yahweh? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112303 | ||
Thank you. It's refreshing to know that someone can read and understand English. If the name of God, YHWH, that appears in the OT nearly 7,000 -- SEVEN THOUSAND -- times is not His name, then God does not have a name. I suppose if His name YHWH appeared 70,000 times, it would still not be enough for some people. How can we NOT take God's name in vain, if we don't even know what it is? How can God's name be hallowed, if we don't even know what it is? --kalos |
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493 | (Question for the day.) | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112754 | ||
To adhere to StudyBibleForum's intended purpose, please read the following before submitting a post: 1. This post is biblically based and whenever possible, I have included Bible references to support it. 2. This post is not intended as a personal attack on the authority of the Bible or on other users of this forum. 3. This post is not submitted as an effort to foster divisiveness, ill-will, dissension or other disruptions to this forum. 4. I have carefully proofread my post and believe it represents my best efforts. |
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494 | (Mythical probability.) | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 112756 | ||
To adhere to StudyBibleForum's intended purpose, please read the following before submitting a post: 1. This post is biblically based and whenever possible, I have included Bible references to support it. 2. This post is not intended as a personal attack on the authority of the Bible or on other users of this forum. 3. This post is not submitted as an effort to foster divisiveness, ill-will, dissension or other disruptions to this forum. 4. I have carefully proofread my post and believe it represents my best efforts. |
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495 | are you required to be baptisted again | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 113052 | ||
It depends on what you mean by "fallen away." When you say fallen away are you referring to falling from grace and losing your salvation? If not, then what do you mean? I would be happy to provide an answer to your question, if you would first clarify it for me. --kalos |
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496 | God refers to himself as "The great I Am | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 113935 | ||
I could be mistaken, but I searched the Bible for the phrase "The great I Am", and could not find it. As far as I know, that phrase appears nowhere in the Bible. Of course, I may have overlooked it. If it is there, could you give us the book, chapter and verse in which "The great I am" appears? |
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497 | Did early disciples use interpreters? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 114345 | ||
English is the global language of today. Many people all over the world, regardless of their nationality or native tongue, can and do speak English, even conducting business in English. Likewise, in the time of the apostles, Greek was a universal language. The apostles wrote the NT in Greek. Throughout the Roman Empire native peoples spoke Greek. So the obvious answer to your question is that the apostles as well as indigenous populations communicated in a commonly understood language -- Greek. |
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498 | spanish translation of the Septuagint? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 114551 | ||
The literal translation is the JPS translation of 1917. I'm not certain, but I think that perhaps a more recent JPS translation isn't exactly literal. The complete title is: THE HOLY SCRIPTURES ACCORDING TO THE MASORETIC TEXT A NEW TRANSLATION With the aid of Previous Versions and with constant consultation of Jewish Authorities Philadelphia The Jewish Publication Society of America Copyright © 1917, By The Jewish Publication Society of America For the online text of the above translation go to this website: http://www.breslov.com/bible/about.htm |
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499 | spanish translation of the Septuagint? | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 114554 | ||
TANAKH: The Holy Scriptures: Standard Edition The JPS TANAKH is an entirely original translation of the Holy Scriptures into contemporary English, based on the Masoretic (the traditional Hebrew) text. The second edition is dated June 1999. (In the third century B.C.E., 72 elders of the tribes of Israel created the Greek translation of Scriptures known as the Septuagint.) (www.jewishpub.org) |
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500 | Where in Acts do you find INDIVIDUALS... | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 114808 | ||
If Acts is a blueprint for all church history, where in the Book of Acts does one find INDIVIDUALS SEEKING for the Holy Spirit and EXPECTING TO RECEIVE TONGUES as the sign that He's come? This is a SPECIFIC question that calls for a SPECIFIC answer. Cite the chapter and verse in Acts where one finds INDIVIDUALS SEEKING for the Holy Spirit and EXPECTING TO RECEIVE TONGUES as the sign that He's come. If an answer to this question does not include chapter and verse, then the question has not been answered. [DO077-1] |
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