Results 361 - 380 of 1290
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jlpangilinan Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
361 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26811 | ||
Did Moses seen God face to face?: Moses write/claimed: Ge 32:30 And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved. De 34:10 And there arose not a prophet since in Israel like unto Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face, What apostle John said: Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Please support your answer/explainations with passages in the scriptures. God bless, Johnny |
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362 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26865 | ||
Dear Nolan, It is moses who contradict his own writing, it is come from same author who is moses, that claim that he knew God face to face. Of course I respected any authors of the book of the bible. Moses as a representative of the law we know he knew everything what he wrote. He is a prophet, he knew if he seen God or not, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? He should know the truth, he is a man of God, it is God will correct moses if he wrote the truth or not. The same as to John, he wrote that no man seen God except the Begotten Son. He wrote it because he knew it is the truth. John and Moses are both man of God they are prophets. Could you explain this?. God bless, Johnny |
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363 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26866 | ||
Rextar, The God that moses knows at the time is God the father, He gave His name to moses, and it was Jehovah, in the KJV (althought some translations it was Yaweh.)And in the new testament Jesus Christ never mentioned that His own name was Jehovah. We know that Jesus Christ, as the God the Son is existed before the world created but His existence is not yet proclaim to the human kind.: Heb 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. In that passages it is the Father porclaim that the Throne is for God the son. Moses doesnt know that.Moses was the prophet of God he know if he seen God or not, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? God bless, Johnny |
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364 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26867 | ||
Rextar, What apostle John said: Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Granting for a while that it is Jesus Christ who have seen by Moses, but the writings of John is very clear "No man has seen God in anytime" Jesus Christ at the time is in His God form and not as a God in human form. If you said that it is Jesus Christ seen by moses, He is God in His God form, or do we suggest that Jesus Christ is not God because John wrote, "no man has seen God in anytime". The God that moses knows at the time is God the father, He gave His name to moses, and it was Jehovah, in the KJV (althought some translations it was Yaweh.)And in the new testament Jesus Christ never mentioned that His own name was Jehovah. We know that Jesus Christ, as the God the Son is existed before the world created but His existence is not yet proclaim to the human kind.: Heb 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. In that passages it is the Father porclaim that the Throne is for God the son. Moses doesnt know that.Moses was the prophet of God he know if he seen God or not, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? God bless, Johnny |
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365 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26876 | ||
Rextar, I cant understand you here, are you agree that Moses seen God face to face and disagree John. Kindly state more clearly. I have two note for you kindly answer them too. God bless, Johnny |
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366 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26880 | ||
What apostle John said: Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Granting for a while that it is Jesus Christ who have seen by Moses, but the writings of John is very clear "No man has seen God in anytime" Jesus Christ at the time is in His God form and not as a God in human form. If you said that it is Jesus Christ seen by moses, He is God in His God form, or do we suggest that Jesus Christ is not God because John wrote, "no man has seen God in anytime". The God that moses knows at the time is God the father, He gave His name to moses, and it was Jehovah, in the KJV (althought some translations it was Yaweh.)And in the new testament Jesus Christ never mentioned that His own name was Jehovah. We know that Jesus Christ, as the God the Son is existed before the world created but His existence is not yet proclaim to the human kind.: Heb 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. In that passages it is the Father porclaim that the Throne is for God the son. Moses doesnt know that.Moses was the prophet of God he know if he seen God or not, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? "Col 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature" You are right of quoting this, but do you think the apostle can write about Jesus Christ if Jesus is not shown is His human form. How can they say that Jesus is the image of the invisible father because some of them saw him in His Human form. At the time of Moses Jesus Christ is existed in His God from and moses doesnt know that. If Jesus Christ is God and He is in His God form how come that moses saw Him. Again, it very clear that John wrote: "no man seen God in anytime. God bless, Johnny |
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367 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26884 | ||
Tim, Moses, as a representative of law, a man of God, a prophet I sure knew what he wrote. He is authorized of his books. He wrote it face to face because he seen it face to face: Ge 32:30 And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved. It that verse it is very clear my friend, Jacob seen God face to face. Moses is a man of God he knew what he is doing. In the new testament, they wrote that Jesus is the image of the invisible father, because they saw Jesus Christ. So moses wrote that Jacob seen God face to face because he seen it face to face. God bless, Johnny |
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368 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26893 | ||
Ge 32:30 And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved. Here it is very clear my friend, Jacob seen God face to face about manoah and his wife it is stated it is only thier manifestation, and if you read it carefully there is an explaination that they are mistaken. But in the writings of Moses about jacobs there is no manifestation afterwards, moses was very sure in his writings. He is the man of God a representative of the law, we know he knew what he is doing, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? Your Statement:"But, he did not see his face, but His back (Exo 33:20-23)." You are truly right in this particular instances, let me again put the wrote of John: Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Did John emphasize any part of God? Did John mentioned face only or back or right jew of left hand? He said "No man hath seen God at any time;" I dont care it is back or feet but the God Himself. Your statement"All of these could of been Jesus. He had other preincarnate appearances." NO! The God that moses knows at the time is God the father, He gave His name to moses, and it was Jehovah, in the KJV (althought some translations it was Yaweh.)And in the new testament Jesus Christ never mentioned that His own name was Jehovah. We know that Jesus Christ, as the God the Son is existed before the world created but His existence is not yet proclaim to the human kind.: Heb 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. In that passages it is the Father porclaim that the Throne is for God the son. Moses doesnt know that.Moses was the prophet of God he know if he seen God or not, otherwise what kind of prophet he is? |
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369 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26960 | ||
Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Ok Tim, I would like to weigh here is the statement of John that "No man has seen God at any time" Did John emphasize any part of God? Did John mentioned face only or back or right jew of left hand? He said "No man hath seen God at any time;" I dont care it is back or feet but the God Himself. As a believer, of course I understand all those things, that bible will never contradict itself. But I need of course a solid explaination when somebody will ask the same question to me. God bless, Johnny |
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370 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 26966 | ||
My friend, Forget "face to face" please remain on the statement of John: John 1:18 Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. Mose claimed he seen God "face to face" Lets granted that moses not seen God "face to face" some of you claim this verse: x 33:23 And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen. Granting that moses saw was the back of the lord still he has seen God. John statement is"No man has seen God at anytime" he dont mention if it is the back feet the jew or any other part but "God" Thanks for your patient, As believer I can easily understand that bible will never condradict itself, I just want a solid explaination when some other ask the same question to me. God bless, Johnny |
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371 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 27326 | ||
Dear Nolan, You mention "it was quite possibly the pre-incarnate Christ in the Old testament" do you mean moses is not sure of who he seen at the time? He do not know if it is the Angel of the Lord,or it was Jehovah (KJV)who gave name to moses that the Lord free them from bondage? Moses was a great prophet he should know of whom he is spoken to? He must sure of what he writen. Nolan, I am not making argument or whatsoever, as a believer I can easily understand that bible will never condradict itself, but if I could have more solid explaination regarding this I am more greatful.That is why I am asking questions, like concept of hell in Old testament, Concept of heaven or teaching regarding the destiny of soul at the time of moses, I think those are important points in the bible that need an explaination(if there is) God bless, Johnny |
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372 | Did Moses seen God face to face? | Ex 33:20 | jlpangilinan | 27477 | ||
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373 | did god create evil | Ex 34:6 | jlpangilinan | 67256 | ||
Welcome to the forum! Because He hated sin. 1Th 4:7 For God hath not called us unto uncleanness, but unto holiness. Heb 12:14 Follow peace with all men, and holiness, without which no man shall see the Lord: The attributes of God are set forth in order by Moses in Ex 34:6-7. (see also De 6:4; 10:17; Nu 16:22; Ex 15:11; 33:19; Isa 44:6; Hab 3:6; Ps 102:26; Job 34:12.) They are also systematically classified in Re 5:12; 7:12. |
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374 | Did Uzzah has given chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 93426 | ||
I have simple querry with the verse below In 2Sa 6:6 ¶ And when they came to Nachon's threshingfloor, Uzzah put forth his hand to the ark of God, and took hold of it; for the oxen shook it. 2Sa 6:7 And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzzah; and God smote him there for his error; and there he died by the ark of God. If we analyze what happened I think the motive of Uzzah really is to protect the ark of covenant to fall or break, or as a human instinct it could be a reaction if you saw something falling down. Why God killed him right away? In 1Jo 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. It was written there that if we confess our sins, He will cleanse us from all unrighteousness, did Uzzah has the chance to confess and ask forgiveness? How could he ask forgiveness if God killed him right away? God bless, |
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375 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 93576 | ||
I think you did not get the question, I know that touching the ark of covenant is punisheable by death that is the reason why the put a handle so thay can carry it without touching the ark. My question really is did uzzah given a chance to repent to what he has done? otherwise what is the sense of 1John 1:9 that if we repent we will be forgiven. Did Uzzah and the sons of aaron given the chance to repent? how can they repent if they were killed right away God bless, |
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376 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 93678 | ||
So what is your answer? did he given chance to repent or not? I will reiterate the question again. If God killed him right away how could he repent? As I said david committed sin such as adultery and murder, this sins is punisheable by death but david had his chance to repent how about Uzzah? did he given. Is God has a favoritism in terms of repentance. | ||||||
377 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 93679 | ||
So where is justice about the death of Uzzah? if other characters in the Bible given a chance to repent and Uzzah didnt where is justice there. How can he repent if he killed right away. Eze 18:30 ¶ Therefore I will judge you, O house of Israel, every one according to his ways, saith the Lord GOD. Repent, and turn yourselves from all your transgressions; so iniquity shall not be your ruin. He commanded everyone to repent, how the person can repent if he killed after his trangressions. God bless, |
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378 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 93706 | ||
When reading your long answer I was surprise that you did not even quote a single book and chapter So I can follow your answer. I quote some of your answer: Quote: We know what God did to Uzzah was just. We cannot accuse God. We should understand that the man was acting in a presumptuous manner, knowing that it was not allowed for him to touch the ark. And yet he did. If that is true, then he had a rebellious attitude and he should have repented of that before. In other words, he had had the opprtunity to repent and he had not taken it. end of quote. You said Uzzah is not allowed to touch the ark, that is why when he touch it he died. When God said that if someone touching the ark will die he also said that to adam and eve: Ge 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. Why adam and eve given the chance to repent, why they dont die right away? you said God has no favoritism? Are you saying that commiting adultery is allowed to david he committed that sin and given the cahance to repent. I hope you are willing to answer my question but please when you answer put scriptures into it. You said that what God did to Uzzah was just, how he can repent if he killed right away. 1 John 1:9 stated that if we repent we were forgiven, what is the sense of this verses to uzzah that was not given chance to repent because he was killed right away. God bless, |
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379 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 94107 | ||
I am surprise that you did not answer me directly but quote scriptures that not related for what I am asking for. In your last post you said that God has no favoritism that is why I am asking you did God give uzzah chance to repent? I am also asked you that the warning similar to uzzah was given to adam and eve, i did quote the passages concerning it. When adam and eve ate the fruits they dont die right away, that is why they are given the chance to repent. But what in uzzah case he cannot repent because he killed right away. You quoted this verse: For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries. He that despised Moses' law died without mercy (Hebrews 10:26). end of quote. As I understand you quote this verse in order to explain that uzzah sin willfully even he knew the truth that he was going to die touching the ark. How about adam and eve, I am sure they know that God said to them they surely die if they eat the fruit? why they are given the chance and uzzah did not. God bless, |
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380 | Given the chance to repent | Num 4:15 | jlpangilinan | 94109 | ||
I did not say that good intension will superceed the laws of God but the chances that given to person to repent. If the person committed sin was killed immediately how could they repent? and uzzah based on what written was killed right away after he touch the ark. My querry is this, we said that God was just, that warning similar to uzzah was given to adam and eve. Ge 2:17 But of the tree Ue of the knowledge ted of good bwj and evil er, thou shalt not eat lka of it: for in the day Mwy that thou eatest lka thereof thou shalt surely twm die twm. But adam and eve live so long, they are given the chance to repent. God bless, |
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