Results 601 - 620 of 1239
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jlhetrick Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
601 | How does God judge and who? | Obad 1:16 | jlhetrick | 211158 | ||
Mr. Jones- I'm not finding your point. What is your understanding of "the life was the light of men" in John 1:4? Light illuminates in darkness. It makes clear the way. The life of Christ was and is most definitely an example for us. As for his ability to face temptation and remain sinless your missing an essential doctrine. He was born of a virgin. There was no sin in His nature and so no tendency toward sin. He did not need to employ devine, supernatural power to resist sin. Because He was and is God His very nature was in opposition to sin. He knew temptation, but his nature did not desire to fulfill it. We, on the other hand, were born of the flesh, utterly sinful, not seeking God nor what is good. (Romans 3:11-12) The necessity of a savior; we were helpless and ungodly and in need of redemption which Christ only was and is able to provide (Romans 5:6). We weren't able to resist and therefore shouldn't have been able to resist sin. There was nothing in us or even within our grasp to have enabled us to resist. But praise God for His redemption and for the example of the life of Christ. Now that He has saved us and made us new, we can resist sin and should. |
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602 | How does God judge and who? | Obad 1:16 | jlhetrick | 211167 | ||
Bobjones- you’re all over the place so it's hard to follow and address; so I will just pick out a couple of points where I'm either misunderstanding or not in agreement. You wrote: "So his life is the condemnation. John 3.19 says it plainly" You seem to be missing the point of the verse by not reading it through. The verse by itself clearly does not in any way suggest that His life is the condemnation. Quite the opposite. What comes after the statement of "the light has come into the world" is the truth of what is condemned. "...and men loved the darkness rather than the light, for their deeds were evil." (NASB) Evaluating that verse in the wider context of Scripture will certainly show this to be the case. It's unscriptural to hang the cause of condemnation on Christ. Regarding Philipians 2:7 I think I'm following you but not sure. It's not an uncommon mistake that some have equated the "emptying" and "taking on the the form of a bond servant" with somehow giving up a portion of who He was as God, that is, a part of His character. This is simply a false assumption resulting from a lack of understanding that Jesus Christ is, always was, and always will be God. If He would have at any time became less than the fullness of God then He would have ceased to be God. It's not possible and not taught in Scripture. Once made flesh through the virgin birth He became a man flesh and blood. He never ceased though to be God; it's the essential truth of the virgin birth. The sin nature imputed to us from Adam was not imputed to Christ. Another misconception is that Jesus could not have used divine power to resist sin. He certainly could have and it would have done nothing to lessen that he was tempted as we are. It might be argued that it could have lessened how we viewed His example since we do not have the same ability. Of course, we do have the power of God who does always provide a way of escape from temptation. Finally, the command of Scripture to resist temptation is not given to fallen man with no inclination toward God. It is, instead, given to the saved to whom He has shown mercy and freely given grace. As for what Romans makes clear... it is that all are eternally lost save for salvation by grace through faith in Jesus Christ. Only the saved have the ability to sincerely and consistently resist sin. I'll leave it there for now as that is a lot to chew on. Hope this is helpful. Jeff |
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603 | does God intend for us to pay tithes | Malachi | jlhetrick | 190438 | ||
Barbara- Welcome to the forum and God bless. Try typing in the word tithe or tithing in the Search box located in the upper right of your screen. This topic has been covered extensively in the past. Using the Search tool will quickly take you to a great deal of information on the topic so that you don't have to wait for responses to trickle in. This will also help to keep a highly debated topic from running yet another unproductive course on the forum. It may also be helpful to do a personal study on the OT tithe; more specifically a general study of the economy of the Jewish people in OT times. God bless, Jeff |
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604 | Genre of Matthew 16:19 | Matthew | jlhetrick | 184760 | ||
Hello Mariana, Welcome to the forum :) The book of Matthew is a Gospel. In other words, a proclamation of the good news of salvation through faith in Jesus Christ. Matthew's primary goal was to demonstrate that Jesus Christ was in fact the Messiah prophesied of by the Jewish prophets. The words of Christ in 16:19 represents the authority of Jesus on earth and in heaven and His ascribing that authority to His church. Hope this helps, Jeff |
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605 | I am seeking advice | Matthew | jlhetrick | 190858 | ||
Sounds like an issue that would be better kept private; between you, her, and the Lord. Best not to further dishonor her and violate her trust by making it a topic on a public forum. God bless, Jeff |
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606 | What do you think Mt 8:20 is saying? | Matthew | jlhetrick | 209487 | ||
follower...- welcome to the forum. A bit of info in the user profile would be appreciated if you don't mind. Glad to see you've found us here. I'll just say briefly that I'm not seeing what you’re seeing in the passage. The meaning seems straight forward and so no attempt to symbolize His words should be made. The context is important. Christ is responding to the call of the scribe, the scribe is not responding to the call of Christ. While Christ did not refuse the scribe we do not know that the scribe did indeed follow Christ after the encounter. We can fairly assume that the scribe would have had at least adequate resources (though we’re not told) and may have even been well off as his profession was depended on in the time and they were few. Christ’s reference to the animals was literal, I believe, and not symbolic. The scribe likely had plenty as material things go, and Jesus literally was from place to place, essentially homeless as He went. He was demonstrating to the scribe the cost of following Him. You wrote; "To me I see Him saying to walk where I walk you need to clean house so I may rest in you and dwell". I think I see your point in our need to resist sin as we abide in Christ (if this is what you mean) but keep in mind... our rest is in Him, he does not rest in us. Hope this is helpful. Others will likely chime in soon. I believe it's very important to always view Scripture literally without attempting to look for spiritual or symbolic meaning that's not there. Where the Scripture uses symbolism it is usually clear that that is the case. God bless, Jeff |
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607 | What is the 'Unpardonable Sin' | Matthew | jlhetrick | 240155 | ||
Hi Gladdish - The use of the term "unpardonable sin" is used to refer to that which Jesus said would not be forgiven. Start here to begin more study on what this is. Matthew 12:30 - 32 “He who is not with Me is against Me; and he who does not gather with Me scatters. 31 “Therefore I say to you, any sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. 32 “Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come. (NASB) |
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608 | What was reason for the virgin birth? | Matt 4:1 | jlhetrick | 185008 | ||
Steve, very excellently put. While I very much appreciate Mark's post (as I always do) I do disagree with any who would argue that Christ was capable of sinning OR that the word of God does not make that perfectly clear. To believe that Christ had the potential to sin is to say absolutely that God has the potential to sin. This argument disagrees with everything I have come to understand about the nature of our Creator. I believe that's why it is important to distinguish between His being sent in the "likeness" as you pointed out. God bless, Jeff |
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609 | What is mercy? | Matt 5:7 | jlhetrick | 153185 | ||
JRM, a good Greek/Hebrew dictionary will be helpful in word studies. In this case Mercy in the OT is translated from the Hebrew word Chesed and means "kindness" and "piety". Where we find the word in the NT it is translated from the Greek word eleeo which means compassion. My first thought is that a power relationship is not significant regarding the meaning of the word. It may be that your observation that mercy "generally involves a power relationship" is because, perhapse, it is in such a relationship that mercy is best illustrated, or, most often illustrated. Then again, your observation may be applied as follows: If mercy is showing or demonstrating kindness, piety, compassion to another one might argue; The one demonstrating mercy might be thought of as being in a position of power in the relationship. The power being, the ability to show mercy vs. with hold mercy. (show kindess or not show kindness) But this argument would mean, I think, that the recipient would have a degree of reliance on mercy from another. I guess I didn't answer the question, but I hope my post will move us closer to an understadning. Jeff hmmm! |
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610 | Continuous Adultery or not? | Matt 5:32 | jlhetrick | 163779 | ||
Hello dcj, You will likely get a number of responses. I want to start by asking you something. Were you or your current wife christians when you divorced? You said you both divorced on "unscriptural grounds", did you know that at the time? If so, did you look ahead to this day thinking, and possibly even discussing, that you would ask forgiveness? Are you now acting that out by seeking forgiveness? In other words, did you intentionally disobey God while saying to yourself, "He will forgive me anyway"? This would be a gross abuse of His mercy and grace. With all that in mind, you know the answer to each question, I have another question. Would another divorce make things right? I can answer one of your questions absolutely. You wrote: "My question is, according to Matt. 5:22 and 19:8, are we continually living in adultery as long as we are married and therefore, will be sent to hell, or has Christ forgiven us (we have asked for forgiveness)?" The answer is no, not if you are truly saved. There is no sin that disqualifies salvation. The bible says: Phi 1:6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ: Search the forum regarding salvation (e.g. loosing salvation) in the upper right and you will get a lot of teaching on this. By the way, welcome to the forum. I will wait with you for the response of others and give further feedback when time allows. P.S. You and your wife need to search your hearts and make sure that you both know the Lord. Believe in faith before you attempt to iron out all the details. There is always consequences to our choices. With love, Jeff |
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611 | Continuous Adultery or not? | Matt 5:32 | jlhetrick | 163785 | ||
Hi Brenda L, Just to let you know you posted your response to me which is no problem as it appears in the thread. However, if you click on the question, in this case by dcj, that person gets an email and they know they have been responded to. You may already know this but I wanted to make sure. Jeff |
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612 | Continuous Adultery or not? | Matt 5:32 | jlhetrick | 163792 | ||
up to you, if there following along it shouldn't matter. For me personally, especially this time of year, I get real busy and don't always follow a thread I have been involved in until I have an email reminder, Jeff |
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613 | divorce and remarriage for chirstians | Matt 5:32 | jlhetrick | 164177 | ||
hello evangelistit, See Matthew 5:32. Deception isn't a reason for divorce. Nor is it a reason for one spouse to separate. Read what the bible says about marriage and the husband and wife becoming One. (With this said, I would always encourage any person to physically remove themselves and children from a dangerous situation-work out the details later) Read the entire passage in Matthew 5, I just gave the verse for reference. Also see 1Cor. 7:15. Again, this is the reference verse, study it in context with the rest of the passage as well as considering what the bible teaches regarding marriage and it's purpose. If this question refers to yourself, I highly recommend you go to your church pastor or elders. If it is for a friend, encourage him/her to do the same. While reading through these passages consider a couple of things. What Jesus said in Mat. is pretty straight forward. In our day most have such a low view of marriage, such disregard for it as an insitution created by God for a purpose, that many (even Christians) will use any reason at all to divorce. Jesus referred to it as hardened hearts. I point this out because the tendency for someone looking for a way out is to attempt to manipulate the bible in order to achieve their desired goal. Notice also that the wife in Mat. is the one having divorce forced on her, but for her to remarry still results in adultry (as I read and understand it). Fiannly, in 1st Cor. the person leaving (or abandoning) is described as an "unbeliever". This response was in no way intended to be an answer to your question, but offered as reference points and thoughts to help you answer the question for yourself. Divorce is a very serious matter and should be considered with the counsel of mature christian leadership in my opinion. Hope this helps, Jeff |
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614 | Version 1 | Matt 6:5 | jlhetrick | 206001 | ||
Duplicate |
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615 | Relationship of God's word to prayer | Matt 6:5 | jlhetrick | 206002 | ||
Melquisedec- what does your user name mean?? Welcome to the forum. May I request that you update your User Info. so that we might know something about you (not required). If I may quote DocTrinsograce (a participant here) in his post# 170353 he stated the following. "We are to live by every word of God. Men were meant to be directed always and continually by God. We know this because that is how God dealt with Adam before the fall. Even man in his sinless, perfect state needed to be told who he was, why he existed, what and how he was to do the tasks God gave to him." (See Luke 4:4 as a reference.) The Scripture establishes that our lives are to be lived in accordance with God's word. Knowing that, our prayers should be in accordance with God's word. A study of what prayer is (should be) is necessary and so I encourage you to embark on this. Prayer, be it a petition on the behalf of others, ourselves, a situation, should be approached in accordance with God's will which we can only begin to discern through Scripture. Our attitude should be in reverence, praise and worship with all thanks. We might think of Peter praying for Christ's deliverance from the Cross. (Matthew 16:21-23). His intentions were honorable, but completely out of the plan and will of God. The following verses (24-26) continues to give insight (from our Lord Himself) into this. I tend to believe that most people petition the Lord for their own needs first and some only seek Him at all when they are in dire straits. At those times, it's easy to see how the focus might be on self. I'm not sure that even immediately after being rebuked face-to-face by the Lord Himself that Peter, in the above example, understood his own error. It was likely sometime after the ressurection that Peter understood it sufficiently. Hope this gets the topic started. Others much more prepaired will chime in soon. God bless, Jeff |
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616 | Are we to pray to the holy spirit? | Matt 6:9 | jlhetrick | 155201 | ||
Hi Ray, got a question for you related to your above post. You wrote: The heavenly Father is Spirit. The Holy Spirit is Spirit. The Son, being God, is Spirit Jesus was born, lived, and died on the cross a (m)man (in the flesh) who was also God. When He rose again He was "flesh and bone". This same physical body was seen by the deciples ascending into Heaven. Question: Is Jesus now "spirit"? |
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617 | Are we to pray to the holy spirit? | Matt 6:9 | jlhetrick | 155239 | ||
Hi Ray, Well, my (m)man thing was just showing that I disagree with you on your capitalization argument here. Where the title "man" is used to refer to Jesus there are two different functions involved. That of showing that Jesus was a man, and that of showing that Jesus was God. When we refer to His being a (m)man we are talking about that state of humility that He experienced in setting aside for a time His glorified Self in Heaven to become like you and me. When Jesus used the title man to refer to Himself as God, He used Son of Man which pointed toward His being God (capitalization is appropriate). We recognize and believe that Jesus the (m)man was also God. So, I just believe that to attempt to assign God status to the (m)man that Jesus became in order that He might experience temptation and physical death invalidates His whole purpose and need for becoming like us. Perhaps you have heard it taught that Jesus was "fully man" and "fully God". It was required of Him to be fully man, otherwise He could not have truly experienced temptation; though He sinned not. It would not have been so great a feat for Him if He had not become fully man; first, He could not have experienced temptation of sin (and therefore could not have been sufficient as a sacrifice being found blameless), so no biggy and no suffering, and second, He could not have died a physical death, again no suffering. If He could not have died a physical death, He could not have been raised again to life, physically, and death still would not be conquered. So we must honor Him for having humbled Himself in that He became a (m)man and died for you and me, by recognizing that He did so. We do this while recognizing that Jesus was and is fully God. Of course this at once becomes a mystery at this point and one that my (and your) human minds can not comprehend. I have followed your arguments regarding capitalization and respect your opinion though I disagree here. But, I hope that you do not teach or believe that Jesus was not in fact born an actual, physical human. On the other issue; Ray, I simply can't follow your argument here. You support your position with a verse that absolutely contradicts yourself and your position. You write: "I believe that Jesus was always Spirit, was always God, and is now "Spirit" Then you give as support: Luke 24:39 says, "See My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself; touch Me and see, for a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have." Jesus, right there in your quoted verse says; "a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see THAT I HAVE. Jesus was saying, Hey, wake up guys, your not looking at a "SPIRIT" here, it's me, Jesus, in the flesh. Look at it again Ray, closely. You then contradict yourself again. You write: "A spirit or a ghost does not have flesh and bones like Jesus had, so He was not a ghost." Finish the thought. A SPIRIT OR A GHOST does not have flesh and bones LIKE JESUS HAD, so He was not a ghost (though finished- and He was not a spirit). Not to put words in your fingers Ray, this is only a logical conclusion. Finally Ray, you write: "So He had a resurrected body, one that could still eat food, yet one that went through doors, and could change appearances. Who knows or understands? But I know that He is a Spirit and we shall see Him as He is." Your right that Jesus' body after the resurrection was different. The bible teaches that it was a glorified body but a body none-the-less. Ours too will be changed, and made incorruptible at His glorious coming. We will SEE Him, actually and absolutely. In Luke 24:39 it was a physical body as you point out; He ate and the deciples were able to touch and feel Him. But you emphasis that He "went through doors." Well I go through doors several times a day. I assume that you are teaching what I have heard others teach; that being that he went through a closed door without opening it or similarly through a wall. Let me redirect this and argue that no where in scripture does it teach or say that Jesus walked through unopened doors or through walls, but instead "he stood among them." A more acurate interpretation would be that He "appeared" before them and how, again, this is a mystery that speaks to His glorified body, but a body it was and is. But the bible does not say that "He walked through doors." I don't fault you here though as it is an easy mistake to make when you consider that the verse does render that the doors were locked, bringing the readers attention to the doors. But lets not re-write it. Anyway, I hope I make myself understandable whether or not you agree; I at least hope my presentation is rational and able to be understood. 2 Tim 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. KJV God bless, Jeff |
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618 | how to pray for a backslidder | Matt 7:18 | jlhetrick | 237823 | ||
Amen to that Doc | ||||||
619 | Is lifestyle change proof of salvation? | Matt 7:21 | jlhetrick | 186589 | ||
Good point Steve :) Jeff |
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620 | Is God's love really unconditional? | Matt 10:33 | jlhetrick | 199276 | ||
Doc- a really excellent post. Something I might add that may be helpful to PaPaH is that we Christians must be wise enough to know when our knowledge of the subject is too limited to offer guidance to others (unbelievers or believers). 2Timothy 2:15-16 God bless, Jeff |
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