Results 1021 - 1040 of 1239
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jlhetrick Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1021 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | jlhetrick | 178285 | ||
Hi Paul, I am not a scholar and don't know a darn lick a Greek; but I have a problem following your logic here. Your premise here seems to be something like this. If it is God's will, and God is sovereign, then it will be as He wills it. Not to put words in your mouth (or at your finger tips :) If I am following your argument, does it possibly stand up to the wider interpretation and understanding of Scripture, the sovereignty of God, and the plan of God as presented in Scripture? Let me ask it in a more simple way. Is it God's will that men sin?????? Is it God's will than men not sin????? God bless, Jeff |
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1022 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | jlhetrick | 178306 | ||
Dear brother Paul, While your post was not extremely lengthy, the several points you ponder would take some time and space to address fully. The overall theme appears to be apparent in your questions: " Is Pharaoh God's agent or enemy? Does a loving God harden his heart and then condemn him? Did not God create evil, (Isaiah 47:7) put evil spirits into Saul, (1 Sam 16:14,15) put evil in a city, (Amos 3:6) and uses a lying spirit. (1 Kings 22:22" My first response is to remind that the only way to understand these things is through the lense of Scripture itself. As I am sure you know, when a verse or passage doesn't make sense to us, we have to compare it to the teachings of Scripture as a whole in order to gain the understanding. An understanding of doctrine plainly taught in Scripture usually solves these kinds of questions in our minds. Doctrines such as the foreknowledge of God, God's sovereignty, His righteousness, free will, etc. Was Pharaoh God's agent or enemy? I believe Sripture teaches that he was both. As Pharaoh, the man was believed to be a god, sent by the gods to rule earth. Easily understood, he was God's enemy. A type of Satan if you will. God is sovereign; He has the absolute right to do all things according to His own good pleasure. When we study the captivity of God's people in Egypt, we see that God not only fulfilled His plan in spite of Pharaoh, but used Pharaoh and what he represented to reveal Himself, His glory, and His sovereignty. In this sense, Pharaoh might be seen as God's agent. Begin reading in Ezek 36:16 for a good understanding of how God uses the circumstances of men to glorify Himself and work sanctification in His own. "did not God create evil..." Absolutely not. Nowhere in Scripture will we find such a teaching. And He did not "put" evil Spirits in Saul. He departed from Saul and allowed the evil spirit to terroize Saul. The best Scriptural explanation I can think of to help understand this would be Job's story. Begin at Job 1:1. Finally, you wrote: "Without David becoming a murderer and adulterer and Judah consorting with someone he thought to be a prostitute, we would not have the lineage of Christ. Have such 'sins' been part of His will?" Not how I Understand it. Again, God is sovereign. The Bible says that He is Holy (Joshua 24:19) He is just (Isa. 45:21). He is neither the creator of sin nor does He tempt any many to sin (James 1:13) God's sovereign plan to redeem mankind did not depend on the sin of David or any other man. Rather, the plan was worked out in spite of their sin. God could have worked out the lineage of Christ through any number of events. Exactly why He chose, for example, to allow David's sin a role only God knows. But what we learn over and over again through Scripture is this. When we see God's plan work out in spite of man's sins and failures, we are left with no doubt that it was and is God, and only God that is in control. What would be the alternative? If God's plan work from start to finish through apparently perfect men, who would receive the glory for that? Just my thoughts and understanding. I believe if I would have attempted to address every point you made, this post would have been too long that much more and would have been repetitive. God bless, Jeff |
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1023 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | jlhetrick | 178344 | ||
Dear brother Paul, I'm thinking that the focus may be somewhat misdirected. There is no importance that I can see in Judas the man regarding the betrayal of Christ. Each one was created for a purpose, yet God depends on none to accomplish His plan. The story of the betrayal speaks of Satan entering Judas, so, by your line of reasoning here, Satan is an essential part of God's plan. By essential, I'm understanding you to say that the essential person is necessary and the plan is dependent on that person. If I am understanding you, your argument seems to be in opposition to the doctrine of God's sovereignty. Another way to think of this would be to personalize it; so I will do that. God created me for a purpose. Because I have been saved by His grace through faith in Jesus Christ, I am convinced that my prupose is included in His plan. With that said, have there been times when God has intended something for me to do and I have not followed through with it. I tell you there has been on more than one occassion I'm sure and can look back and point to some of them specifically (but I won't here :) So I failed to fulfill my purpose on that and probably several different accounts. Did my failure hinder God's plan? To put this on a smaller playing field (so to speak) let's consider God's plan to save person A. God is drawing person A to Himself and tasks me with witnessing to person A. I fail to obey God even when the call to do so is strong in my spirit (and of course I rationalize it all day long). Does person A die and go to Hell? Interested to read your response, God bless, Jeff |
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1024 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | jlhetrick | 178406 | ||
Dear brother Paul, Thanks for the response. But I'm left feeling like there has been a change of subject here. I appreciate your thoughtfulness in what you write. Allow me to express my own understanding and beliefs regarding what you have written. To begin with, the personalized response in my last post was not to address the work the Holy Spirit is doing in me as an individual. I agree that based on the fact that I feel convicted of my sins I can be reassured that the Holy Spirit is in fact living in me. Not to side-step the issue; this was not the focus of my response. I was speaking to the larger plan that God has and my part in it. Conviction does not always lead to immediate repentance, even in believers. My point was that God's plan (in the case of my illustration) to save an individual does not depend on my cooperation. If He chooses to save person A, and affords me the opportunity to be involved with that and be blessed as a result; my not being obedient (as in not witnessing to person A) will not prevent or even delay God's saving that person. Moving on to other comments in your current post. You wrote: "If God's plan is to form us in His image, then when you felt you had missed Him and were convicted in your heart, had He progressed the formation of Him you? Although you felt failure, He had progressed His purpose, Therefore was it 'wrong'?" The simple answer here is, YES, it was wrong. Disobedience to the Lord is always wrong; there's no justifying it. I believe we agree though that His mercy and His grace is sufficient to overcome our failures and He is able to bless us continually (Rom 8:29) You wrote: "We understand the bible as an explanation of God's law, they where His before He gave them to us. To be formed in His image we must, like Him, we must agree with His laws because we want to, not because we have to." We have no disagreement up to this point, however, there is much more involved. The Bible does explain God's law and His character. But what the Bible says to us about God goes much further. It is His mercy and His grace that is the message to be grasped; that is the message of salvation. That in spite of our inability to keep those laws, His mercy witholds what we rightly deserve and His grace gives to us what we can never achieve on our own. What an awesome, overwhelming testimony to who God really is wouldn't you agree. We agree that as Christians we must come to a place where we choose to obey God; but we are never to forget that it is only by His grace that we are able to do so. Finally, you wrote: "To bring us to this understanding we go through a process of sin which is His plan. Therefore the fall and redemption of mankind is the process, not the frustration of God's plan." I'm not sure I'm grasping your theology in that statement so I will be brief with my response. My understanding and belief is this. God never intends or PLANS for any man to sin. Rather God works His plan perfectly with full knowledge that we will sin, and in spite of us when we do, thus, my original point. God's plan is accomplished in accordance with His perfect will. It never depends on Jeff Hetrick in Las Cruces, New Mexico. With that said, I believe it is important to point out that God did not orchestrate the fall (though he knew it before the creation of the world). Knowing this, He did orchestrate a great, miraculous plan of redemption; this too before the creation of the world. He testified to that in Genisis (see 3:15ff). Thank you brother for the continued consideration. God Bless, Jeff |
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1025 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | jlhetrick | 178495 | ||
Dear brother Paul, I'm following your logic, but I'm still unable to reconcile it to Scripture. The way I am interpreting your argument; you are saying this (please correct me if I am reading you wrong): You wrote: "God requires alienation before reconciliation." translation (in context of the rest of your posts): God's PURPOSEFUL INTENT was to "create" evil, that is sin, in order to force (require) mankind's separation/alientation from Him. And the purpose behind it was to once again reconcile Himself with man. Not by any stretch of my own imagination do I interpret Scripture in this fashion. Another problem I have with your post brother, is the rewording of the verses. Even the most cautious, well intended attempt at this is dangerous at the very least. I do believe your intentions are well meaning and in the spirit of trying to understand our God and His word as are mine. Let me continue to offer feedback on my understanding of this topic. If we approach the topic of God and his creation from the view that I am understaning that you take, we have the following problems. 1. The Holy and Righteous God explained in Scripture is the creator of sin. 2. That this same God causes man to sin, and in fact requires it. 3. That because God causes/requires man to sin, man has no responsibility for his sin. 4. God is unjust in punishing man for his sin. Back to your hypothesis in a nut-shell. "...the plan of God requires alienation before reconciliation." I believe this thought to be in contradiction to the gospel message. God does not require alienation before reconciliation. Rather, man's sin, which man is solely responsible for, has alienated him/us from God. God's unapproachable love, His mercy and grace provided a plan of salvation through faith in His Son Jesus Christ. God REQUIRES that we trust in that only in order to be RECONCILED to Him. Brother Paul, I do not claim to know it all; in fact, the record of my posts here on the forum represents very well that I do not. But the way I am reading you, it appears that you are in fact rewriting the scripture and doctrine along with it; though I don't believe that is your intent. Again, if I have misunderstood you please redirect my thinking. In the love of Christ, Jeff |
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1026 | what if a christian is married to non-ch | 2 Cor 6:14 | jlhetrick | 146978 | ||
Hello aiello! I believe that prayon's answer is accurate in that a believer is not to marry a nonbeliever (2 Cor. 6:14). However, I understood from you questions that you were already married before you came to the Lord. If you were already married (and perhaps that is irrelevent since you are legally married now) the scriptures has much more to say about it. first, if you were already married before coming to believe and being saved, refer to 1 Cor. 7:13. We are not told here but it is practicle to believe that in the early days of the church, while so many were coming to believe in the Lord, that it was a very common event for a husband or a wife to hear and believe before the other. If that new believer were to then "leave" what hope then would there be for the unbelieving spouse to come into the knowledge of the Lord and be saved? A key here in the verse mentioned is that if the unbelieving spouse consents to stay with the believer, the believer is not to leave. the unbeliever is "sanctified in" the believer making it possible that the children are "holy". (a biblical proof, I believe that God establishes and sanctifies the family). Don't forget the following chapter. If the unbeliever leaves on his/her own accord, the believing spouse is "not bound" 1 Cor. 7:16 may be the most important. You may someday lead your husband to the Lord. Next, Jesus spoke to divorce as sinful (see Mark 10:4-12) Even if you were a believer and then married an unbeliever would divorce be an option. If we believe that for a believer to marry an unbeliever is a sin (it goes against teaching of scripture) then are we to believe that divorcing this unbeliever after the fact is any less a sin? Is it possible to right a wrong with a wrong? Would the sin of divorce be justified on the basis that the marriage, in the first place, was sinful? Finally, let me say that if you or your children are being physically abused you need to ensure both your and their safety. I don't find in scripture where God expects us to keep ourselves and our children at risk of personal injury or death. I have heard of some teaching from scripture that allows for divorce in the case that a spouse "deserts" the other. I believe I read it in a book authored by Pat Robertson. I'm sorry but the book title and referenced scriptures I have forgotten. I think I remember him explaining how a spouse who has completely foresaken the vows of marriage, though he/she may still be physically present, has in fact deserted the marriage. This, of course, may not be at all what he was teaching and may not have any scriptural suppport whatsoever so please don't make a decision based on the "desertion" issue before searching and praying and knowing it's right. |
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1027 | lev.27:19 | 2 Cor 9:7 | jlhetrick | 198275 | ||
Val- I too used to listen to the late Mr. Burkett. A Godly man in my opinion; always careful to teach financial accountability with sound, biblical principles. Just prior to Larry Burkett losing his battle with cancer my schedule had changed disallowing me the time to hear the program. I was sorry to here eventually that Mr. Burkett had passed away. I'm glad to hear the program continues as I believe the organization has been a blessing to so many. I hope the ministry continues to be upstanding, however, I would have to investigate it's current leadership and activities before I could/would recommend it to another... here on the forum or otherwise. God bless and happy new year! Jeff |
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1028 | Beware "Another" | 2 Cor 11:4 | jlhetrick | 156444 | ||
Hello humbled, Thanks for bringing it back to the issue. Too often these threads get way off focus (I know I have contributed to it) and we miss the opportunity to address the issue. Personally, I have tried to push for other's to quote things in context (as others on the forum encourage as well). Thanks for taking Doc's quote of the Pope and putting it in context. I was one of those following along without looking for myself to see what the Pope actually said. I am not Catholic and have a whole list of doctrinal teachings of the Roman Catholic Church that I disagree with based on scripture (as I do with other denominations). Anyway, It appears clear, when taken in context, what the Roman Catholic's Pope was saying. "Anyone who discovers Christ must lead others to him." "But religion constructed on a “do-it-yourself†basis cannot ultimately help us. It may be comfortable, but at times of crisis we are left to ourselves. Help people to discover the true star which points out the way to us: Jesus Christ! LET US SEEK TO KNOW HIM BETTER and better, so as to be able to guide others to him with conviction. (emphasis added). Mar 9:38 John said to Jesus, "Teacher, we saw someone driving out demons in your name. We tried to stop him, because he wasn't a follower like us." Mar 9:39 But Jesus said, "Don't stop him! For no one who works a miracle in my name can slander me soon afterwards. Mar 9:40 For whoever is not against us is for us. Thanks again humbled, Jeff |
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1029 | Beware "Another" | 2 Cor 11:4 | jlhetrick | 156456 | ||
Hi Mark, This is a great question, thanks for asking it. I would like to comment while we wait on Humbled to respond. Again I think that context can help us understand the Pope's comments. I realize you are asking for an opinion (what is thought) of the statement and agree that opinion is really all any of us can offer. I looked at the quote in context with the immediate statements before and after the statement you quoted. "This is why love for Sacred Scripture is so important, and in consequence, it is important to know the faith of the Church which opens up for us the meaning of Scripture. It is the Holy Spirit who guides the Church as her faith grows, causing her to enter ever more deeply into the truth" The Pope here seems to be putting special emphasis on "love for sacred scripture." He also emphasizes that it is the "Holy Spirit who guides the church as her faith grows." He also atributes to the Holy Spirit as being the "cause" of the church "entering more deeply into the truth." With this in mind, It may be that the Pope has Romans 10:17 in mind. Rom 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Wish we knew for sure what he meant. Jeff |
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1030 | Beware "Another" | 2 Cor 11:4 | jlhetrick | 156473 | ||
Hi bro. Mark, No, I don't think your all wet. You may be very accurate about your conclusion regarding the Pope's intent. I am not convinced of it but I concede that your presentation and rational certainly support your thought. The one thing in your argument that does give particular support to your conclusion is that: "his words are telling us that we need the Catholic Church to interpret the Bible for us. That is fully in line with other things the Catholic Church has said." I think it is the position of the Roman Catholic Church regarding it's self-proclaimed position of authority that has lead to this thread in the first place. Again, I preach context, but I did not include the wider context of the RCC's position on it's own authority which is important. But with that said, I want to point back to the actual words of the Pope and say that I don't come to the same conclusion that you have for the reasons I gave in my previous post. Now, I also do not disagree with any argument you make. And we are back to the dilemma of being only able to speculate. I'm interested in more dialouge on this topic. Jeff |
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1031 | Beware "Another" | 2 Cor 11:4 | jlhetrick | 156486 | ||
Hi Mark, I hear ya! I don't think the Pope is a member of this forum. I bet he does have an email address though. Jeff |
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1032 | Beware "Another" | 2 Cor 11:4 | jlhetrick | 156532 | ||
Hi Victor, Yep, I read the Domatic Constitution on Devine Revelation. Thaks for the link. You are abaolutely right. It's all right there. It's obvious from reading it what the Pope had to have meant. So the bottom line is, on the surface, taking the words of the Pope at face value, there is nothing inappropriate stated (my opinion). Taken in context with what the RCC claims as it's role in revealing God's truth (which I see happens to only INCLUDE the scriptures)it does become obvious what the Pope meant. HUMMMM. Do I smell wool? Is that sheeps clothing he is wearing? Thanks for the link, Jeff |
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1033 | calm slow thoughts peaceful slow words! | 2 Cor 12:9 | jlhetrick | 153581 | ||
Hello bk.., God bless you and I'm sorry for your accident and consequences. 2Co 12:9 And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me. You might try looking into the history of Charels Spurgeon (just do a web search on the name) try to find biographical information on him. He is considered one of the best theologians and preachers of his time and perhaps ever. I mention him because he lived with very severe pain that threatened, and at times I believe actually, incapacitated him. You will find that, reagarding the above verse, Mr. Spurgeon lived and learned to believe it. Also, many of my patients have Bipolar Disorder and I have seen different combinations of medications work extremely well for many of them. Bipolar is one of the most treatable disorders in this field of medicine when the patient is compliant with medication regimen. Therapy/counseling may be helpful as well. Continue to pray and praise God and think Him for sparing your life. Seek to make it worthwhile that you were spared by recognizing He has a plan for you. Seek Him, believe Him, and follow Him. Hope this helps |
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1034 | weaker and wiser | 2 Cor 13:4 | jlhetrick | 172737 | ||
Hello mamasonthree, I don't think that's in there, at least not in that format. You may be thinking of 2 Cor 13:4. Jeff |
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1035 | weaker and wiser | 2 Cor 13:4 | jlhetrick | 172741 | ||
Makes sense to me too. Did you have specific you were looking in to that brought this question to mind, or was that the main question? Jeff |
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1036 | weaker and wiser | 2 Cor 13:4 | jlhetrick | 172763 | ||
OK, great! That's a responsible approach that more should adopt. Jeff |
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1037 | bible say women and men equal | Gal 3:26 | jlhetrick | 237145 | ||
Hi rscabad - no, the Bible doesn't say that men and women are equal. God did create both men and women very differently and for good reason. Regarding our fallen condition there is no difference between men and women. We are equally sinful and equally lost and equally in need of a savior. Regarding our position in Christ we are equally forgiven and equally saved by grace through faith in Christ Jesus. There is no special condition applied to a man or to a woman (one over the other) once saved (see Galatians 3:26- 4:7) Additionally, the Bible very clearly holds expectations for men that are unique to men and to women that are unique to women. The idea of male and female equality in every aspect is a secular one and not supported by Scripture. |
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1038 | spirtual seed? | Gal 3:28 | jlhetrick | 170228 | ||
John, Don't be discouraged. Just because someone doesn't get your point doesn't mean you didn't do a sufficient job in making it. In this case, thank you for holding true to the gospel of Jesus christ, without wich, no man Jew or Gentile can be saved. If another would dare to preach a different gospel, well, may God have mercy on that ones sole. Jeff |
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1039 | spirtual seed? | Gal 3:28 | jlhetrick | 170256 | ||
Hello WOS, No, I am not insinuating anything of the kind. I was simply supporting John in his standing firm regarding salvation by grace through Jesus Christ. There is no other salvation; there is also no teaching in scripture that indicates that any individual will be saved as a result of his or her race, ethnicity, tribe, or nationality. Speaking specifically to your posts, however, you did point out the unity of believers, Jew and Gentile alike. But after that your tone tended to lean more toward distinguishing a difference between Jews and Gentiles. You and others seemed to have gone on a kind of impulsive frenzy that served to separating and distinguishing “Jews” as a people to be revered. If they have any special place in history, and they do, it is because of the work God has done to, in, and through them. The glory is all His and belongs to no man or race of men nor to a nationality of men. This is not to say that I did not and do not agree with many of the comments that were made. Also, I recognize that many of the comments were simply made to demonstrate or elaborate on just how God has in fact blessed the nation of Israel. Still, the thread quickly took on a tone of reverence for the “Jews” rather than one of reverence for the grace and holy plan of God. This, in fact, is the mistake the nation of Israel made regarding themselves in biblical times. What does the bible say regarding the Jews and salvation. Much, but here is a specific passage that states it plainly. Act 4:10 let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead--by him this man is standing before you well. Act 4:11 This Jesus is the stone that was rejected by you, the builders, which has become the cornerstone. Act 4:12 And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved." PS. If we all try to get in the habit of actually answering direct questions with direct answers (myself included), much of the debate we have on the forum would be unecessary. It sometimes appears that people are not secure in their belief's and therefore will not state plainly what they believe. "what if I'm wrong?" If we are off track or dead wrong in what we believe, it is better to have it stated plainly so that others can redirect us and help us toward a better understanding. For me, I am approaching closer and closer to a place where my pride is taking a back seat. I am more eager to state my belief's plainly in order to have them confirmed or adjusted in light of the truth. Christ's love, Jeff |
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1040 | spirtual seed? | Gal 3:28 | jlhetrick | 170285 | ||
Hello WOS, Thanks for stating your position so plainly. We are in total agreement on this issue apparently. Also, thanks for all that you contribute to the forum. I always enjoy your post and you are one of those on the forum who regularly challenge me to think. Christ's Love, Jeff |
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