Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: gumnos Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Geneology from Ezra back to Aaron? | Not Specified | gumnos | 50444 | ||
Geneology from Ezra back to Aaron? According to the account in 1Chron 6:3ff, you have two parallel family namings, with Amariah, Ahitub, Zadok, and Azariah all entered twice (with Meraioth as the father of one Amariah and third Azariah as the father of the other Amariah). However, in Ezra 7:1ff, you get Ezra tracing back his geneology to Aaron without this set of duplicates. Where can I get an accurate picture of this family tree? |
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2 | "bless God" vs. "curse God" translation? | Not Specified | gumnos | 50455 | ||
The Hebrew word "barak" is translated everywhere as "bless" or "praise" (more than 300 times) but in Job, it's translated "curse" (as in Job's wife telling him to "barak" God and get it over with). This got me really confused. Why was it translated this way only in Job? The best I can come up with (and that I've found in commentaries) is that it's some sort of euphemism, but that seems pretty weak to me. The author of Job uses "naqab" (which is regularly translated as "curse" or "blaspheme") elsewhere, so it's a personal choice on the part of the author to use "barak" and an odd choice on the part of the translator to translate it as "curse". Can anybody shed some light on this for me? Thanks | ||||||
3 | Geneology from Ezra back to Aaron? | Bible general Archive 1 | gumnos | 50547 | ||
Geneology from Ezra back to Aaron? According to the account in 1Chron 6:3ff, you have two parallel family namings, with Amariah, Ahitub, Zadok, and Azariah all entered twice (with Meraioth as the father of one Amariah and third Azariah as the father of the other Amariah). However, in Ezra 7:1ff, you get Ezra tracing back his geneology to Aaron without this set of duplicates. Where can I get an accurate picture of this family tree? |
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4 | Geneology from Ezra back to Aaron? | Bible general Archive 1 | gumnos | 50555 | ||
Stokeyhk, Thank you for your response. Yes, my goal is not to bicker and argue endless geneologies (as per the 1 Tim verses), but I'm doing a study of names in the Bible. I began with Aaron on the first page of my concordance and have worked my way up to (at the time of this question), Ahitub. It has been a fascinating study, linking characters and making sense of some folks actions once you know more about them. Suddenly, they aren't just mostly-anonymous Greek or Hebrew names, but become more 3d when you link their references together. When I got to Ahitub, I got confused, because of the two references in 1 Ch. each with same father and son. Perhaps "son" (Hebrew "ben") in Ezra would have been better translated "descendant"? Shalom, -Tim |
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5 | "bless God" vs. "curse God" translation? | Job | gumnos | 50462 | ||
The Hebrew word "barak" is translated everywhere as "bless" or "praise" (more than 300 times) but in Job, it's translated "curse" (as in Job's wife telling him to "barak" God and get it over with). This got me really confused. Why was it translated this way only in Job? The best I can come up with (and that I've found in commentaries) is that it's some sort of euphemism, but that seems pretty weak to me. The author of Job uses "naqab" (which is regularly translated as "curse" or "blaspheme") elsewhere, so it's a personal choice on the part of the author to use "barak" and an odd choice on the part of the translator to translate it as "curse". Can anybody shed some light on this for me? Thanks | ||||||