Results 141 - 160 of 516
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | Were Ananias and Sapphira believers? | Acts 5:5 | ebrain | 181677 | ||
Hi Hank. I could be wrong of course, but the whole tone of your contributions gives me the impression that you think the two persons in question were not believers, is this in fact the case, and if so why do you think they were not Christians? I agree with what Apollos has said, that we do not know for certain if Ananias and Sapphira were believers, although I myself am inclined to the view that they were, an opinion you will note that is also supported by the Doc. This, however, is not the point, what really matters is the question why exactly did the Holy Spirit cause this incident to be recorded, what are we intended to learn from it? Regarding Paul's stock holdings, I regret I am not able to help you with this one. Happy New Year. Edwin. |
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142 | Were Ananias and Sapphira believers? | Acts 5:5 | ebrain | 181601 | ||
Show me from Scripture that they were not regenerate. | ||||||
143 | Were Ananias and Sapphira believers? | Acts 5:5 | ebrain | 181591 | ||
Sorry the word "home", should have read home call. | ||||||
144 | Were Ananias and Sapphira believers? | Acts 5:5 | ebrain | 181588 | ||
I am of the opinion that there is Biblical evidence that certain sins committed by a believer may very well result in an early home as indicated by the verses bellow. 1Cr 5:5 deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.* 1Cr 11:30 For this reason many are weak and sick among you, and many sleep. |
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145 | what is the history --tectragrammton | Gen 15:2 | ebrain | 181584 | ||
Hi Searcher56. What follows may be of interest to you, it is an e-mail I sent over three years ago to a brother in the UK. Subject: The Divine name. I want so much to share what the Lord has shown me with others of like mind. Did you know for example that when you meditate upon the four letters YHWH that form most Holy of all names of our Lord. It can be shown that God is three persons, that Jesus is the second person, that He is both human, and Divine, that He left Heaven to come down to earth, and returned back to Heaven again. All that contained within the one name that we translate as "I AM" Do we really have any idea of the incredible wonder of our Lord. Personally I am overwhelmed with what has been revealed to me in 42 years. Please forgive me for going on like this, I was thinking about the word "Tetragrammaton", this word as I am sure you know means "The 4 letters", and refers the 4 Consonants that form the Divine name, but there are not 4, only 3 one of which is repeated, if we ignore for a moment the last letter, and think only of the first 3, all of which are different (Unique), could this be drawing our attention to, Father, Son, and The Holy Spirit?, If so what about the 4 th letter, does it by being a repetition of the second letter draw our attention to the second person of the Trinity?. If so He is not only in the center of the Godhead, but also outside it at the same time. The only person who can be in two places at once is God Himself. Also is the second appearance of this second letter at the end of the name telling us that Jesus left the Godhead to come to earth, and then in due course returned back again?. Remember verse 13 in John Ch 3, which says "No man has ascended into Heaven, but He who came down from Heaven" (Some versions add "Who is in Heaven") Must close now, more later. God bless you. Edwin. I wrote the above over two years ago, I wonder why our attention is drawn to the Deity of the second person, could it indicate the Father's anticipation of the teaching's of JW's, Mormons, and others who do not accept that Jesus is God ? Every blessing. Edwin |
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146 | Were Ananias and Sapphira believers? | Acts 5:5 | ebrain | 181583 | ||
Yes I believe they were, as they told lies to the Holly Spirit, and they could only do that because He indwelt them, and He only indwells believers | ||||||
147 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181581 | ||
I have had some further thoughts on Philipians Ch 2 vs 5-9, and would value your comments thereon, but let first let make my position clear. I have no problem with the Trinitarian nature of the Godhead, with the fact that the second person, the Son of God is just as much God as is the Father, and the Holy Spirit. Would you agree that the attitude of "not my will but thine be done" that Jesus adopted at all times towards His Father is the same attitude that we should also adopt towards our Father God at all times so that His will shall be done through us as it was through Jesus? Do you also believe that the second person of the Trinity became a real human being just as you and I are (but without sin), divesting himself of all His Divine abilities for a short period of time, in order that he should not have one iota of advantage over us, limiting himself to the same limitations that we have in order to demonstrate that we also can live a life that is well pleasing to the Lord our God, who is our Father also, and that after this short period of just a few years, that all His Divine abilities were restored to Him? Please have a look at the two translations of Philipians Ch 2 vs 5-9, given below, and let me know if you feel that my understanding of these Scripture verses is acceptable to you, and if not why. Phl 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, Phl 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, Phl 2:7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. Phl 2:8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross. Phl 2:9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, Phl 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, Phl 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it an advantage to be exploited to be equal with God, Phl 2:7 but emptied himself taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. Phl 2:8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross. Phl 2:9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, Thank you. Edwin Brain. |
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148 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181487 | ||
Doc. You wrote "Relative to Philippians 2:9 you asked, " How can Jesus be given the name that He already has?" (sic) Why can't God have bestowed on Him the name eternally? Do you suppose that the Son graduated into His position at some point in time? "The Father is made of none, neither created nor begotten. The Son is of the Father alone; not made nor created, but begotten. The Holy Spirit is of the Father and of the Son; neither made, nor created, nor begotten, but proceeding." Athanasius points out that these aspects o God are eternal, rather than temporal". I disagree, verse 9 has to be understood within the context of verses 5-9. Verse 9 starts with the word "Therefore" this clearly indicates that God also has highly exalted Him because of what Jesus did as described in some detail in verses 5-8, see bellow. Phl 2:5 Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, Phl 2:6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God, Phl 2:7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. Phl 2:8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross. Phl 2:9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, You also wrote. "we want to take the whole of Scripture into account, not pick and choose verses to reflect our own ideas. The former is God centered, the latter is self centered". I have never at any time approached Bible reading with preconceived ideas, looking for verses to support them. I find your suggestion that I have, to be both insensitive and insulting. |
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149 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181480 | ||
Hi John. You have quoted. "Note: 1 John 2:27 '"You have no need for anyone to teach you." Both "you's" are plural and refer to the believing community as a whole; there is no ground here for a hyper-individualistic understanding of the Gospel wherein the views of other believers and the gathering of believers together are considered unimportant' (Jewish New Testament Commentary, David H. Stern, Jewish New Testament Publications, Inc., 1992)." Mr Stern is expressing his opinion to which he is of course entitled, however, what he has said in no way alters what I have said. The Bible is a supernatural revelation from Almighty God, it is a spiritual book, and spiritual things have to be spiritually discerned 1Cr 2:14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. Only a born again Christian can discern what the Holy Spirit reveals, and then only if the reader adopts the same attitude that Jesus adopted at all times i.e. "not my will but thine be done". Thank you very much for your kind, and encouraging words as bellow. Subject: Could Jesus sin? Note: Edwin, Your post to Tim is a good one. And thanks for clarifying what you wrote earlier. I just didn't get it the first few times I read it, but now I do after you explained it to me. A very Merry Christmas to you! John It's a joy for me to have fellowship with you in this way. A very merry Christmas to you and your family, and all the best for 2007. Edwin. |
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150 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181473 | ||
Hi Doc. Thank you for your post. As I have said many times before, I have no problem in accepting the Deity of our Lord Jesus Christ, the problem that I have is with the teaching that although Jesus was also truly a human being, He was never at any time less than God. This being the case therefore, please answer the three questions bellow. Luk 22:42 saying, "Father, if it is Your will, take this cup away from Me; nevertheless not My will, but Yours, be done." How can God say "not My will"? Jhn 5:30 "I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of the Father who sent Me. How can God say "I can of Myself do nothing"? Phl 2:9 Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, How can Jesus be given the name that He already has? Every blessing. Edwin. |
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151 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181468 | ||
Greetings Doc. What makes you think that the Biblical interpretations of fallen human beings in the 5th Century are to be preferred to those of fallen human beings in the 21st Centuary? Whenever I read Scripture, I adopt an attitude towards God as outlined at Jhn 7:17 "If anyone wills to do His will, he shall know concerning the doctrine, whether it is from God or whether I speak on My own authority. It is as a result of my adopting this attitude towards what I read that I believe the Holy Spirit will reveal the truth of what that passage has to convey, and that He will not confirm error. Thank you for your seasonal wishes. Edwin. |
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152 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181454 | ||
Greetings John. Please read my post of 12.56 PM to-day to Tim Morant. Have a great holiday, and best wishes for 2007. Edwin. |
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153 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181453 | ||
Hi John. Below is an extract from my post. "My user screen name, "kalos", is a Greek word which, in the KJV, is translated as "honest". My use of the word "Name", is as above, a description of a person", Would you allow that the word "honest", is a description of yourself?, yes, or no Sorry to cause you confusion. Edwin. |
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154 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181452 | ||
Greetings Tim. I have never said that Jesus ceased to be fully God, only that He has two natures, one which is Divine, and one which is human. Perhaps what follows will help you to understand. When Jesus came to earth some 2000 years ago, He not only came to offer Himself as a sinless sacrifice to pay for our sins, and thus enable God to forgive as many as will accept this fact. but also to demonstrate by His life just how we humans were, and are intended by our Father God to behave towards He who made us in His own image. By His life, I mean the attitude of (Not My will, but thine be done) that Jesus continually adopted towards His Father, thus enabling the Father who indwelt the Son, see Jhn 14:10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. The Father communicates Himself through the body of the man Jesus to all people with whom He came into contact at that time, and through Scripture now to us. This is the reason why you, if you are a Christian are indwelt by the Holy Spirit, in order that you might allow the other resident within yourself to have right of way in your life, and to do just what He wants to do in and through you. Remember Jesus said, "He who has seen me has seen the Father", Jhn 14:7 "If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him." not that the Father is a human being, Jesus is here referring to conduct and behavior, what He the Father did, and what He said, see Jhn 1:18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,* who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. Jesus also said, Jhn 15:3 "You are already clean because of the word which I have spoken to you. Jhn 15:4 "Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in Me. Jhn 15:5 "I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me you can do nothing. Note "without Me you can do nothing" Why do you suppose that Paul said Gal 2:20 "I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself for me. Phl 1:21 For to me, to live is Christ, and to die is gain Col 1:27 To them God willed to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles: which* is Christ in you, the hope of glory. Gal 4:19 My little children, for whom I labor in birth again until Christ is formed in you, There is only one person in this whole universe who can live the Christian life to perfection,,, that person lives inside you, and that's why Jesus said what He said at, John 5:19. John 5:30, John 11:41b - 42, John 14:7-10. Ask Him in prayer, why He did things this way, and He will tell you as He told me many years ago, "Because it's the only way you can do it". Have an enjoyable holiday. Edwin. |
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155 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181440 | ||
Hi Tim. Please explain to me just what your understanding of John 5:30. is, and I will take it from there. Jhn 5:30 "I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of the Father who sent Me. |
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156 | What is the covenant that GOD made with | Gen 17:2 | ebrain | 181437 | ||
Gen 17:1 WHEN Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am Almighty God; walk before Me and be blameless. Gen 17:2 "And I will make My covenant between Me and you, and will multiply you exceedingly." This is just the start, read on. The Lord bless you ebrain. |
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157 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181435 | ||
1 name a word or a combination of words by which a person, place, or thing, a body or class, or any object of thought is designated, called, or known. My user screen name, "kalos", is a Greek word which, in the KJV, is translated as "honest". My use of the word "Name", is as above, a description of a person, however, I still await your explanation of how it is that out of the mouth of one person there can come a claim to Deity (Which I accept), and a claim not to be (which I also accept) I look forward with eager anticipation to your resolution of this apparent contradiction. Let me give you a clue, have a look at John 14:10, where our Lord Jesus himself describes just what is going on. Bless you brother. Edwin. |
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158 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181411 | ||
John referring to this passage said. Jhn 12:37 But although He had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in Him, Jhn 12:38 that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke: "Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?"* Jhn 12:39 Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah said again: Jhn 12:40 "He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts, Lest they should see with their eyes, Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn, So that I should heal them."* Jhn 12:41 These things Isaiah said when* he saw His glory and spoke of Him So then just who did Isaiah see? Jhn 5:21 "For as the Father raises the dead and gives life to them, even so the Son gives life to whom He will. Jhn 5:22 "For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son, Jhn 5:23 "that all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him. The Lord our God does not have a name in the sense that we have names, in order to identify/distinguish ourselves from one another. There is only one God, and for this reason no need for Him to have a name, as there is no other god with whom He might be confused. What is given in Scripture is a number of different descriptions of, His Nature, His ability, His capacity, etc, etc, What type/sort of Person He is. At Gen Ch 3 v 13. Moses said If they ask me "What is His name" what shall I say to them? The reply he received was not a name but a description. "I AM" which can also be rendered as "The perpetually self revealing all existent one". One more example, take the description EL SHADDAI, God Almighty, or "God All Sufficient", which is found 48 times in the OT. This is a compound title, made up of ELOHIM meaning the strong one who gives strength/nourishment, and the Hebrew word Shad which refers to the Female Breast. What the Lord is saying here is "I love you with the very special tender loving care that a nursing mother feels for the infant that she is breast feeding". For further information see http://www.ldolphin.org/names.html The Lord bless you all. pabrain. Below is one example of the use of EL SHADDAI. Gen 17:1 WHEN Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am Almighty God; walk before Me and be blameless. Gen 17:2 "And I will make My covenant between Me and you, and will multiply you exceedingly." Gen 17:3 Then Abram fell on his face, and God talked with him, saying: Gen 17:4 "As for Me, behold, My covenant is with you, and you shall be a father of many nations. Gen 17:5 "No longer shall your name be called Abram, but your name shall be Abraham; for I have made you a father of many nations. Gen 17:6 "I will make you exceedingly fruitful; and I will make nations of you, and kings shall come from you. In verse 1 the Lord reveals Himself as "Almighty God", this is the English translation of EL SHADDAI. Isn't it wonderful, that when God tells Abraham who had not fathered any children, that he will be the father of many, that The Lord uses His title which is so closely related to nursing infants. Do we really have any idea just how incredible the Lord our God is? there are just no words to adequately describe Him. May the Lord bless you abundantly, and keep you safe. Edwin. |
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159 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181410 | ||
Hi John. Thank you for your post. I think you will find that the material bellow will put the the whole matter into perspective, as these verses clearly indicate the Deity of out Lord Jesus Christ. The question should be, are you John, and others able to reconcile these apperantly opposing views of of the second person of the Trinity. For me it presents no problem, but before I let you have my thoughts, I want to see what others have to say. Subject: Jesus is God. Jesus is God, but He is also man at the same time. Have a look at Isaiah Ch 48 vs 12-16, but don't read the whole of v 16, just yet, read only, "Draw near to me, hear this: from the beginning I have not spoken in secret, from the time it came to be I have been there" (ESV). Now ask yourself, Who is speaking?, the answer can only be, the Lord our GOD, now read the rest of v 16, "And now the Lord GOD has sent me, and his Spirit." it is clear then that the one speaking in the first part of this verse must be our Lord Jesus, and none other. Read Matthew Ch 28 v 19, "in the name" not "names", one name, three persons. Now try Colossians Ch 2 v 9, "For in him the whole fullness of Deity dwells bodily" (ESV). That is to say, all there is of the Father, all there is of the Son, and all there is of the Holy Spirit dwelling inside the body of the Lord Jesus Christ. As I have said before, and will no doubt say again, don't try to understand it, just believe it, God has given you the faith to believe, so use it. The human mind is totally incapable of comprehending the Trinity, or the Deity of Jesus, so don't try. Remember "Without faith, it is impossible to please God". Better rendered as "Without exercising faith". All Scripture verses quoted are from the English Standard Version, unless otherwise stated. At John Ch 14 v 9, Jesus said "Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. John Ch 1 v 18 , reads "No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known". or "the only one, who is God"; some manuscripts "the only Son". Note, the Translator's preference is all ways shown in the main text, with possible alternative renderings relegated to footnotes as above. Now have a look at John Ch 8, vs 24, 28, and 58. Here Jesus identifies Himself three times as "I AM", not "I am he" as some Bible's put it, "he" does not appear in the original Greek. the two words are "EGO IME" and are taken from the Septuagint, a Greek translation of the OT made about 300 BC. These two words are taken from Exodus Ch 3 v 14, where God told Moses, "Say this to the people of Israel. I AM has sent me to you"... This is the most Sacred, and Holy name/description of the Lord our God it means "I HAVE BEEN WHAT I HAVE BEEN,I AM THAT/WHAT I AM, and I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE". This Title was also understood by the Jews to mean "The perpetually self revealing all existent one". It was considered so sacred by the Jews, that they were forbidden to pronounce it, when reading Scripture publicly. There was no doubt in the minds of those who heard Jesus, that He was claiming to be God. John 10:17-18. Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. Note. Only God can raise Himself back from the dead. Who did Isaiah really see? Isa 6:1 IN the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up, and the train of His robe filled the temple. Isa 6:2 Above it stood seraphim; each one had six wings: with two he covered his face, with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. Isa 6:3 And one cried to another and said: "Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; The whole earth is full of His glory!" Isa 6:4 And the posts of the door were shaken by the voice of him who cried out, and the house was filled with smoke. Isa 6:5 So I said: "Woe is me, for I am undone! Because I am a man of unclean lips, And I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; For my eyes have seen the King, The LORD of hosts." John referring to this passage said. To be continued. |
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160 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | ebrain | 181407 | ||
Hi Kalos. Thank you for your post With the exception of the second paragraph, I find myself in agreement with the extract you gave from www.gotquestions.org/could-Jesus-have-sinned.html, If the second paragraph is referring to the Deity only, and not the humanity of Jesus, then I agree with this also, but I am not happy with, "having full deity and full humanity so included in one person as to be indivisible". The problem as I see it is all too common with a lot of Christians, that is an inability to reconcile the Deity of our Lord Jesus, with His true humanity. Let me ask you a number of questions, but before I do so let me state that I have no problem with the fact that Jesus is God, as anyone will know who has read what I have had to say on that subject on this Forum, and as the many verses of Scripture I have quoted indicate. What follows might seem as if I am playing the Devil's Advocate. This is not in fact the case, but the verses I shall refer to could be used by his servants to undermine a believers faith. Unfortunately this is helped along by those Preachers who will say "Although we are considering the humanity of Jesus, let it be clearly understood that at no time was He any less than God". This teaching plays straight into the hands of the Evil one, who will try to use it to his advantage. Psalm 121:4 says "Behold, he that keepeth Israel shall neither slumber nor sleep". Jesus went to sleep in the back of a boat. Jesus did not know the time of His second coming, only the Father knows that. Jesus is refereed to as "My Servant" at Isaiah 52:13, which is where one should start to read Isaiah Ch 53. Tell me how can the servant of God, also at the same time be God? Psalm 22:1. Jesus cried out "My God My God", Tell me how it is possible that He who is God could possibly address Himself as My God? only someone who is not God could say this. Hebrews 2:9. "Made lower than the angels". Hebrews 10:7. "To do your will O God". 1 Corinthians 15:28. "Then the Son himself will also be subjected to him.....God". John 5:30. Please tell me why it is that God has to say "I can of my self do nothing". Why God has to say "As I hear I judge". who does He take advice from? Why is it that the only way in which God knows that His judgment is righteous, is because He dose not seek His own will? Why are we told at Acts 2:22, "God did through him", if it was Jesus who performed the Miracles? Philippines 2:9. How can you give someone something they already have? Note see Isaiah 45:22-23, for the application of this name. Rest assured that I have no problem with the verses I have quoted above, they do not prevent me from rejoicing in the fact that Jesus is God. Referring now to Coll 2:9. This is a verse that I especially love, and have used many times to indicate that the entire Godhead, that is all three persons suffered and died on the cross, and not just only the man Jesus. Now Kalos let make a statement with which I know you will be in full agreement. "The will of Jesus was at all times to do the will of His Father", please explain what He ment when He said "not my will", as in the verse bellow. Luk 22:42 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done. Everyblessing. Edwin. |
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