Results 221 - 240 of 380
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: biblicalman Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | Speaking in tongues | Acts 2:4 | biblicalman | 227959 | ||
The first thing to recognise is that all true believers have been baptised in the Holy Spirit. 'In one Spirit have we all been baptised into one body' (1 Corinthians 12.13). The baptism in the Holy Spirit that John promised would be brought about by Jesus was in contrast to his own baptism in water. Jesus would bring what John was unable to bring the new work of the Spirit, so that in contrast to those who followed John (who undoubtedly experienced a work of the Spirit of a kind) those who followed Jesus would be 'drenched in the Holy Spirit'. That is the sign of the true Christian. Nowhere in Scripture is the baptism in the Holy Spirit linked with speaking in tongues as a 'must have'. Clearly some who were baptised in the Holy Spirit did speak in tongues, for we know that some Christians spoke in tongues. And all Christians have been baptised in the Holy Spirit. It is noteworthy that baptism in the Holy Spirit is not mentioned in Acts 2, although it may be read forward from Acts 1. But tongues was a gift mainly for private prayer. It was only to be used in church if it was interpreted. But as Paul said, 'do all speak in tongues?' and the answer he expected was 'no'. So yes you may well be advised to seek a new church where the truth is expounded |
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222 | Are Messianic Jews saved? | Acts 4:12 | biblicalman | 229408 | ||
Hi Ismaila, It is not possible for any of us to say of another that they have definitely been saved. All we can do is confirm the requirements for them to be saved. Whether Messianic Jews are saved will depend on one thing. Have they fully trusted in the Lord Jesus Christ and the fact that He died for them and rose again, for their salvation? Are they confessing Him before men? If they are then they are and will be saved, if they are not then they are not saved. Best wishes |
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223 | First apostle killed for his faith? | Acts 12:2 | biblicalman | 228506 | ||
Assuming that you mean the twelve Apostles the answer is James, brother of John. (Acts 12.2)and one of the three present at the Transfiguration and the raising of Jairus' daughter. | ||||||
224 | What does the bible say about near death | Acts 14:19 | biblicalman | 229242 | ||
I hope I may be forgiven if I disagree with one item in Searcher's list. The men who rose in Matthew 27 did so 'after His resrrection', and not on His death. Nor do I see any grounds for thinking that they did not benefit by His resurrection so as to be permanently raised. My only other criticism would be as to whether the story of the rich man and Lazarus is a parable. Jesus never names people in parables. It is therefore very much open to question. |
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225 | What does the bible say about near death | Acts 14:19 | biblicalman | 229275 | ||
Hi, In 229238 Searcher stated that it was a parable. I was pointing out reasons why it might not be a parable but a reference to real life. Interpreters are divided on the question. But as Jesus' parables were always based on real life we can accept that its details are portraying His thoughts either way. Best wishes |
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226 | trans word intensify amp how emp preva | Acts 19:20 | biblicalman | 229628 | ||
to 'continue to increase', 'to grow mightily, and 'to grow and spread' can be said to be the equivalen of 'to intensify'. The paraphrasers are simply using parallel ideas together in order to bring out and emphasise the forceful meaning of the Greek. We must not read too much into individual words. Rather we must ask , what was the writer trying to say?. And here it is surely the rapid spread, and powerful and effective impact, of the word. Best wishes |
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227 | Please Explain Gods Chosen People! | Romans | biblicalman | 227795 | ||
As Paul makes clear the Jews are not God's chosen people. God's chosen people are the elect whom He has chosen (Romans 9.6). See Paul's whole argument in Romans 9-11. In His covenant God called the people who had come out of Egypt, many of whom were foreigners (Exodus 12.38) to respond to the covenant. Those who did so would be blessed (and prove themselves elect), those who did not do so would be cursed (Deuteronomy 27-28). Their whole subsequent history demonstrates this. When the promised Messiah came the true Jews believed on Him. The remainder were accursed (Romans 11.3). Thus Jesus established the true Israel (not a replacement Israel) made up initially only of Jews (John 15.1-6; Matthew 21.43). Later Gentile proselytes were incorporated into Israel (as they had always been). The difference was that they were not required to be circumcised because they had already been circumcised through participation in the death of the Messiah (Colssians 2.11 ff). Thus it is now believers in the Messiah who are genuinely the true Israel (1 Peter 2.9; Ephesians 2.11 ff) based on the foundation of the the initial true Jewish believers in the Messiah. Jews who do not believe in and respond to the Messiah are thereby accursed. | ||||||
228 | transgression, iniquity, sin | Romans | biblicalman | 227889 | ||
Iniquity is sin that results from the sinful inward nature, transgression is to break the law, to miss the mark, sin is wrongdoing. | ||||||
229 | Romans 24 | Romans | biblicalman | 228537 | ||
sorry Romans chapter 24 doesn't exist | ||||||
230 | Why do some think Paul was a homosexual? | Romans | biblicalman | 229765 | ||
Hi Merrilee Welcome to the Forum. Such an idea is the result of pure wishful thinking, and a lack of understanding of Christian love. Paul in fact gave the strongest condemnation of practising homosexuality in the Bible in Rom 1.26-27. Best wishes. |
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231 | romans ch1 v.7 no Holy Spirit why? | Rom 1:4 | biblicalman | 228471 | ||
The aim was to focus the attention on God the Father and on His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. The Holy Spirit was to be relied on and experienced but attention was not to be focussed on Him. Such a focus often leads to extremism. God the Father was very much seen as the God of the Old Testament Jesus Christ was the new revelation of God as LORD. Both were seen as acting towards God's people, as Creator, Redeemer. and Shepherd. The people were, however, very much aware of the work of the Holy Spirit among them. But worship was to be directed towards Father and Son, with the Holy Spirit's encouragement and inspiration. He was, however, included in Jesus' baptismal statement (Matthew 28.19) and in Paul's epilogue in 2 Corinthians 13.4. |
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232 | What happens to people who never hear? | Rom 1:20 | biblicalman | 229548 | ||
Hi Ismaila, Another group of verses to take into account when considering this question are Romans 2.14-16. They may well indicate that in a limited number of cases some who have not heard of Christ will be acceptable to God because they have responded to His call in their hearts (although their acceptance will of course be on the basis of the cross). We must also remember that when Paul was writing many Jews among the dispersion would not have heard of Christ. To them therefore the Old testament teaching would still apply. There are unquestionably cases where missionaries have gone to certain peoples and have been approached by some who said, 'We know the God Whom you are talking about, and we have been waiting for you to come.' The ways of God are wonderful. If you want a good read and want to read an amazing story try to get hold of a copy of 'Mimosa', by Amy Carmichael. (Dohnavur Press). You will end up saying, 'My God, how great thou art'. Best wishes |
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233 | What does dead to sin in Roman 6:2 mean | Rom 6:2 | biblicalman | 228645 | ||
It means that we see ourselves as having died with Christ because He died for us. Having been made one with Him by the drenching of the Spirit (1 Corinthians 12.12-13) His death becomes our death. Thus we are to reckon on it as true (Rom 6.11) and live our lives accordingly, for it also means that we have risen with Him. But we must not isolate its meaning from what has gone before. Our whole salvation depends on the fact that Christ died for us, and that we have by faith entered into His death, taking the benefit of it for ourselves. He has borne our sin. We have received the gift of righteousness. We cannot do this and continue to live unrighteously. Physically nothing happens. It is all in the realm of the Spirit, and in how we view sin and life. But clearly as our being made spiritually one with Christ is a reality, His power is available for us to be able to carry it into genuine experience. Are we still tempted? Yes we are tempted more than ever because we become objects of attention for Satan and his minions (Ephesians 6.10 ff). The Scripture makes clear that the Christian is often under temptation (1 Cor 10.13). Yes they can still sin, for he was speaking to people who were battling against sin and seeking to give them a new attitude towards it. If a man continues in sin without seeking forgiveness it is unlikely that he has been truly born from above, for his Shepherd would not allow him to continue in that way. Thus yes, he would be eternally damned if he did not come to repentance. But no genuine Christian can continue in such a way for long without experiencing God's chastening to bring him to repentance. 'Whom the Lord loves, He chastens' (Heb 12.6). There is a huge difference. For the one who is 'dead to sin' as a consequence of 'dying with Christ' has had brought home to him the true nature of sin, and has received the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus, Who will raise him up and enable him to walk in newness of life. |
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234 | What does dead to sin in Roman 6:2 mean | Rom 6:2 | biblicalman | 228661 | ||
The wonderful thing that does happen is that we become united with the risen Christ and therefore have His power available to us if our lives are fully yielded to Him. If we are Christians He and the Father come to live within us and we enjoy the presence of the Holy Spirit. The way to a victorious life is yieldedness to Him. So we are not left alone to struggle on by ourselves. We have our risen Saviour dwelling in our hearts by faith (Ephesians 3.17). Possibly you could consider Galatians 2.20. 'I live, yet not I but Christ lives in me, and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by confident trust in the Son of God Who loved me and gave Himself for me.' Here is the secret, letting Christ live through us after recognising that we have died to sin in Him. |
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235 | Do we obey all of the Ten commandments? | Rom 6:14 | biblicalman | 229581 | ||
Hi Ismaila, See Matthew 5.21 ff; Mark 10.19-21; 12.28-30; Romans 13.8-10; Galatians 5.13-14. Best wishes |
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236 | We do what we can and God does what we c | Rom 8:28 | biblicalman | 228548 | ||
Well the nearest I can think of is 'God makes all things work together for good to those who love Him'(Rom 8.28). But the principle is right as long as we are walking in His will. There are many Biblical examples where that is exactly what happened. One example is Jonathan's foray against the Philistines (1 Sam 14.6) |
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237 | I am confused | Rom 8:30 | biblicalman | 229686 | ||
What is made quite clear in Rom 8.29-30, however interpreted, is that the same people who were justified and glorified, were also those who were foreknown and predestinated to be conformed to the image of Jesus Christ, and no others. We cannot refer the first half to 'all men' and the second half to 'some men'. That is to ignore the clear meaning of the Greek. Futhermore it is quite apparent that we cannot say all men were predestinated to be conformed to the image of Jesus Christ, because it is quite obvious that they were not, unless of course we say that God has failed in His purpose. To predestinate means to determine destiny beforehand. So the meaning of the verses is that those whom God foreknew were the ones who would be saved. The argument between Calvin and Arminius lay in the meaning of foreknew. Does it mean 'discern beforehand' or does it mean 'determine beforehand' (or more strictly 'enter into personal relationship with beforehand'). The Greek (proginosko) would favour the latter. For the former we would expect pro-oida. But however we view the matter we cannot avoid the fact that from the beginning God knows who will be saved. That being so by allowing creation to continue He was predestinating some to be saved and some to be condemned. For had He allowed all men to die in the Flood no one following that time would have existed. They could neither be saved or condemned. Thus by allowing Noah to survive, and not be taken into Heaven like Enoch was, God was determining the destiny of all future mankind. How can I know that I am one of the predestined? By receiving Jesus Christ as my Saviour and LORD. Best wishes |
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238 | I am confused | Rom 8:30 | biblicalman | 229690 | ||
The word translated predestined or foreordained is pro-orizo, to lay down or determine beforehand. pro-ginosko is translated as foreknow. ginosko means to know by experience, in contrast with oida which means to know intellectually. Thus God's foreknowledge was not just intellectual but personal. |
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239 | I am confused | Rom 8:30 | biblicalman | 229696 | ||
When considering the Scriptures we have to recognise that there are certain veins running through them which might even appear to us, with our limited knowledge to be contradictory, although they are in fact complementary. One of those is God's sovereignty. Another is man's freewill. I prefer not to use human logic when considering the ways of God because if one thing is certain when we use our own logic about God it is that we will be wrong. But even human logic tells me that if man is oorrupt he will never choose to respond to God. Yes He can choose to sin, he can choose options in his life (although usually in accordance with his own predilections and therefore not strictly though freewill), But one thing sinful man would never do without God's grace acting on him is to choose God. And it seems to me that the Scriptures demonstrate this clearly. Consider for example Romans 9.14-24. When the Bible speaks of God calling it makes nonsense of the whole idea if we say that He calls 'whosoever will'. He calls in accordance with His own purpose. There is a specific call and there is a general call. Thus there is a general call, but we must not mix it up with God's specific call in for example Romans 8.29-30. We should of course try to be morally right, and we should do that not because we have a choice, but because it is the right thing to do. And that is so whether God is acting in sovereignty or not. But it is not for us to say that because God is sovereign we are not responsible for what we do. Of course we are. We live our lives on earth as freewill beings. But God help us if He leaves us the victin of our own freewill. On those terms no one will ever be saved. Of course God can decide who will be saved, for it depends on the activity of His undeserved compassion and favour, and through the sanctifying work of the Holy Spirit (1 Peter 1.2). Do you really think that if God brought Himself home to men as He really is and worked by His Spirit in their hearts they would not come to Him? I know of a number of people who have actually SEEN the risen Christ. I have never heard of one who did not subsequently believe. So what finite men believe about the question is irrelevant. As to 'losing our salvation'. If it is ours we will certainly lose it, But it is not. Salvstion is the work of God from beginning to end. and He has never lost anyone's salvation. 'And this is the will of Him Who sent Me that of all whom He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise them up at the last day' (John 6.39). See also John 10.27-29; 1 Cor 1.7-9; Phil 1.6; 2 Tim 1.12. It is amusing and sad to me how people try to avoid the clear teaching of Scripture just so that they can imprison God in their own logic. |
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240 | I am confused | Rom 8:30 | biblicalman | 229734 | ||
EJJ No I was not referring to you. I was referring to people who speak about 'crawling out of God's hand' as though God had a weak grip (John 10.29). |
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