Results 21 - 40 of 146
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: benjamite Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Does that site address Rev. 6:16-17? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34031 | ||
To answer your first comment, what I meant was, no human being can claim the infallibility and inerrancy found in the Bible. (Romans 3; 2 Tim 3:16-17) When you or I say something, but the Bible disagrees, we are wrong, no questions asked. Sure, commentaries, and other works, might have their place, and they can be pretty useful at times, but they are not Scripture. If they don't correctly handle one verse that relates to the given subject, they are wrong in that spot, but it still means that they are wrong. Between the writings of man and the Bible, the writings of man pale in comparison, to such an extent that they don't matter. |
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22 | Is sanctification a joint effort? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34674 | ||
Hello Again Zach, I just chimed in on your "Limited Atonement" discussion, elsewhere. 1) I think the answer to this is "Yes" and "No" 2-4) Positional sanctification - we are justified (declared righteous), Romans 4:25; 5:9; 1 Cor 1:2; Heb 2:11 (complete) Progressive sanctification - Philippians 1:6 "He who began a good work in you will perfect it until the day of Christ Jesus..." (incomplete, cf. 1 Thess 5:23) 5) If we have the ability to be holy apart from God's help (1 Peter 1:15-16), then Romans 3:10ff isn't true. Eph 2:10, "We are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them." In my mind, the answers to your questions are found in the scriptures given, without much more comment from me. (However, since you cannot read my mind, feel free to ask for further clarification if you would like it.) In Him, Benjamite |
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23 | Is sanctification a joint effort? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34696 | ||
Does the believer have to cooperate? Argument from individual passages of Scripture: I would look to Philippians 2:12ff to answer this. Paul says "work out your salvation" (side note: this is most definitely NOT to be confused with "work FOR your salvation"). He then gives practical "advice" as to how to work it out (stuff that we must do for sanctification). Argument from reason (and Scripture as a whole): From our standpoint, sanctification might be seen as a two way street. Otherwise, why would we need the bulk of Scripture? Does Scripture only give sound doctrine, or does it also give practical application? It gives both. If sanctification were entirely of God (from our standpoint), why would He need to tell us what to do, instead of just doing it in us, for us? On the other hand, from God's standpoint, "He who began a good work will perfect it." and "We are His workmanship" to do the deeds that "God prepared beforehand". (Phil 1:6; Eph 2:10) I guess, and you probably won't like this, my answer to your question is "yes". Sanctification is entirely a work of God and the believer will co-operate in the sanctification process. I would love to hear your thoughts on the issue. In Him, Benjamite |
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24 | Is sanctification a joint effort? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34723 | ||
Zach, I enjoy questions. (As long as you don't ask how much I ate for dinner.) Judging from the last two questions, I take it that you see the answer to your first question as "Yes". Romans 6:11 says, "Even so, consider yourselves to be dead to sin, but alive to God in Christ." From my understanding of the how "consider" is used, in the Greek, it is a "present imperative" meaning basically that 1) it is a command or a request, and 2) the considering is an ongoing process. Now lets look at James 4:7 - "Submit therefore to God...." Here (and in the following verses) we have an "aorist imperative" - meaning that it is a command that doesn't carry with it the idea of an ongoing process. Rather than "keep doing it", it just says "do it". "Submit", "resist", "draw near", "cleanse your hands", "purify your hearts", "Humble yourselves". Do we do these once? I don't know about that, but if we aren't doing them, we must do them. Can we refuse to daily submit? Do we still sin? Yes. 1 John 1:5-10. I would, however make a distinction between what God would like to accomplish in us, and what He intends to and will do, Philippians 1:6; 2:13. I could say more, but I have to go now and this is enough to start with. In Him, Benjamite |
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25 | Is sanctification a joint effort? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34782 | ||
Zach, I love the way you phrase your questions. (By the way, they ususally end with a question mark - ? .) Growing is a process, agreed. As our conversation continues, you seem to be wanting to be steered in different directions. Originally I might have sent you towards Romans 6-8. Now, however, I hear a lot of 1 Corinthians in your "questions". In Corinth, there were many who had been believers for some time, and they should have grown. Paul, however calls them "still fleshly". They should have been ready for solid food, and yet they were not. They still needed milk. (1 Cor 3:2ff) It should be noted that Paul rightly rebukes them for this. At the same time, it is not the planter, nor the waterer, but it is God who causes the growth. I still see the Bible preaching both 1) that it is God's work entirely 1 Thess 5:23-24; Phil 1:6; Rom 8:28ff; Gal 5:22-23; Eph 2:10 2) that it appears that we must have some part in it. (Otherwise, why the rebuke in 1 Cor 3?). cf. 1 Peter 1:13-16; 2 Cor 5:10; etc. (not meant to be "unbalanced" - but it is getting a little late) To answer Tozer's quote, "Tanning salons aside, one cannot get a suntan at night." (I must have heard it from someone, but I don't remember from whom.) In Him, Benjamite |
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26 | How many times is Jesus called Lord? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 35912 | ||
If by "Jesus" you mean after He was born, a search of the word "Lord" in the New Testament gives more than 500 occurrences of the word. "Lord Jesus" is found 103 times. "Lord Christ" is found twice (Rom. 16:18; Col 3:24) "Lord" is found in the same verse as "Jesus" or "Christ" in 179 verses. There are those who would argue that in the Old Testament "the Angel of the LORD" was the same person (God the Son) as the one who would be born "Jesus" - 56 times in 52 verses. Can I get by with saying "quite a lot"? In Him, Benjamite |
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27 | How can I start a bible study? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 36632 | ||
John is a great place to start. (I prefer book studies.) However, to answer your question, it all depends.... First, pray about it. Maybe these questions will help. Who's leading the study? (Obviously, in one sense, the answer should be God.) What kind of person is the human leader? Is he or she knowledgeable? Does this person already have access to a number of outside sources - commentaries and such - to help answer questions that might come up? How much preparation would you expect from those in the study? Where will the majority of the study be done? Will it bew at each person's home before each meeting? (A study guide might help considerably, here.) Will it be during the meeting? (If you pick a study guide, watch the time it takes to go through each lesson.) What does the leader (or group) want to do - book or study guide? Have you thought about maybe a study guide over a book? If the people at the local Christian bookstore If you look at study guides, here are a few questions to ask... "How 'user-friendly' is this?" "Am I convinced by what it says?" (if not, it will be hard to sell to the group) If the studying is all done together..."How long will each chapter/lesson take to go through?" Are the salespeople at your local Christian bookstore friendly? (More to the point, do they know their product? Could they walk you through the different study guides?) I realize that there are more questions here than answers, but maybe it will help you decide which way you want to go. In Him, Benjamite |
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28 | Where was satan when he first sinned? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 41137 | ||
Satan did sin in heaven (Luke 10:18; see also Ezekiel 28:14-16). In Luke, he could not have fallen from heaven if he did not sin in heaven. In Ezekiel, he was cast off the mountain of God. Why did this happen? 28:15, "Unrighteousness was found in you." See also Job 2:5, Satan tells God, "(Job) will curse you to your face." Satan lied to God in heaven. Isaiah 14:12ff is another picture of Satan's fall, but some might see it as being prophetic of the Antichrist to come. Okay, I looked at the Scriptures, now it's your turn. :-) In Him, Benjamite |
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29 | Where was satan when he first sinned? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 41205 | ||
I'm having a hard time seeing it there, actually. I see the mountain of God as being distinct and separate from the garden of God - the former being a euphemism for "Heaven" the latter for "Eden". On the basis of Job 38:4-7, I believe that the angels were created before the creation of the earth, and that Satan's fall, likewise, was before the creation of the earth. |
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30 | Where was satan when he first sinned? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 41383 | ||
As I said before, I see the "Garden of God" as a euphemism, or another name, for Eden. "But if in all instances where Mount of God occurs in the Bible it refers to the one in Jerusalem, then why would be a different Mount in Ezek 28 and if one decides that it is a different one what right or basis does he have to conclude this?" Aren't you doing just that by equating it with Eden (and not Jerusalem)? In truth, there were a number of mountains called "the mountain of God", not just one. Ex. 3:1, Horeb Ex. 4:27, I assume the same (Horeb) Ex. 18:5, Sinai (might Sinai be the same as Horeb?) Ex. 24:13, Sinai Ps. 68:15, "the mountain of Bashan" 1 Kings 19:8, Horeb Daniel 9:20, I conceed is probably Jerusalem, one of the many "mountains of God". These must be considered as well. Note that in 1 Kings, Jerusalem was already in existence. See also Galatians 4:25 for the location of Sinai - Arabia, not in Israel. With this as evidence, why do you fault me for saying, "I see the mountain of God as being distinct and separate from the garden of God - the former being a euphemism for 'Heaven' the latter for 'Eden."? As to equating Jerusalem with Eden, there were Cherubim to guard the way back into Eden. There was a world-wide flood to destroy any remaining evidence of Eden (Gen 6-9). Jerusalem is not the same as Eden. Since Ezekiel uses figurative language for the description of Satan, why must the rest of it be absolutely literal? Remember, Satan is a spirit being (Eph 6:11-12). Again, I do see the Garden of God as being Eden. I don't see the mountain of God, in this instance, as being Jerusalem (and there is much Biblical precedence for it not having to be Jerusalem). I see it as being Heaven - the only other location we knew about during the days before the fall. Remember Ezekiel 28:16 says he was cast from the mountain of God, it does not say "garden of God". The text allows for this to be a separate event from the deception and curse in Genesis 3. |
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31 | Where was satan when he first sinned? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 41399 | ||
Okay, let's deal with these three thoughts. 1. There is no other Eden (as far as location is concerned). Eden was, however a person's name (2 Kings 19:12; 2 Chron 29:12; 31:15; et. al.) 2. They DO NOT all refer to the same mountain. (Let there be no misunderstanding.) That was my point. Sinai (or Horeb), the Mountain of God, is in Arabia NOT ISRAEL. The Jews want to build their temple in ISRAEL (not on Sinai). Don't tell me that there is only one Mountain of God, to do so is to directly contradict the Word of God. Please see the references, in my previous post, to a) Sinai or Horeb, b) The mountain of Bashan, and c) Jerusalem. Jewish tradition not supported in Scripture is tradition and not the Word of God. Please don't equate the two. 3. "stones of fire" are mentioned only twice in Scripture Ezek 28:14 and Ezek 28:16 (not in Job 28:5-6). Apparently we'll find out what they are when we get to the Mountain of God (Heaven). To say that there is fire under the earth is apparently a reference to volcanoes. (Job 28:5). |
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32 | Where does Jesus say He is God? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 46338 | ||
Forgive me if I'm repeating anything. The last post I read said that Jesus was never quoted as saying that He is God. I disagree. In John 10:30, he does claim equality with the Father. Remember in John 10:31, the Jews picked up stones because "He blasphemed". They understood Him to say that He was God. He did not deny it. In Matthew 28:18-20, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit". Note that it does not say "names". He, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are identified by One Name. I'm not saying that they are not three persons, I'm considering their essence as being One - each is considered God. These are Jesus' own words. Elsewhere, in Mark 14:61-62, Jesus was asked if He is "the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One". Under oath, He says, "I am." Again, the Jews accused Him of blasphemy. They understood Him to say that He is God, and they did not believe it. In John 8:56-59, we read, "'Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.' So the Jews said to Him, 'You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?' "Jesus said to them, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.' "Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple." He does not say "Before Abraham, I was". He says "I am". I find that significant. Even in the Old Testament, we see evidence of "plurality" in the Godhead. It isn't new with the New Testament. Consider the creation account. In Genesis 1:26, God says, "'Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness.' And God created man in His own image..." The very word "Elohim" is plural, and it is often used of God. I realize that I cannot make you see. I can present the evidence, and it is out of my hands. Do with this what you will. |
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33 | What is meant by "us", "we", etc.? | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 49416 | ||
My question deals with the use of words like "us", "we", "our" (or for you language scholars, the use of the 1st person, plural, forms of the personal pronoun as well as verbs). In the epistles (primarily), do these words always refer to the group as a collective? Do they sometimes focus more on individuals who share common experiences? (For an example of the latter, more than one person can say, "I got up this morning", therefore, together we can say, "We got up this morning.") What are the implications of this? |
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34 | Please explain atonement | Bible general Archive 1 | benjamite | 55654 | ||
"atonement" can mean "reconciliation" as in Romans 5:11 (compare NASB with KJV). Have you ever reconciled a checkbook? Often, atonement looks at how sin is dealt with. If I were to say "your sin must be atoned for", I would mean "your sin must be dealt with" - gotta get rid of it. Leviticus 4:26 looks more at dealing with sin. Often, "atonement" is related to the New Testament terms "propitiation" (1 John 2:2) - a covering for sin, or, perhaps, an ointment (or salve) for your sin. Around here, we have a triple-antibiotic ointment to put on scrapes or cuts. It gets rid of the infection and heals the wound. That's kind of like what propitiation, does for our sin. 1 John 4:10; Romans 3:25. One key difference is that you always had to atone for your sins in the Old Testament. In the New, Christ died for our sins once for all. (1 Peter 3:18; Rom 6:10; Heb. 7:27; and Heb. 9:26-28 ) |
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35 | Different levels or rewards in heaven | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 32899 | ||
I'm not sure I know the term you are looking for. However, maybe one of the verses below might help. If you are looking for different rewards, have you considered the different "victor's crowns" (stephanoi)? 1 Thes 2:19, exultation 2 Tim 4:8, righteousness James 1:12, Rev. 2:10 Life 1 Peter 5:4, Glory There are the rewards of 1 Corinthians 3:10-15, See also 2 Corinthians 5:10 If you are more interested in the "different levels" try Matthew 5:12 ("great" as opposed to something lesser) Matthew 10:15; 11:23-24; 25:14-30 or Luke 10:12; or 2 John 8 ("losing what we have accomplished" rather than receiving "a full reward". If you do come across the term. Look me up and email me. I would be interested to know, as well. In Him, Benjamite |
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36 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34672 | ||
Hello Zach, I will answer your question, but I will say that this will never be resolved here. It is too easy for emotions to get in the way (for those on all sides). I do not intend to persuade you. I only want to present my view. (Do watch yourself, you are not at fault, but you aren't the first person to bring this up.) I do not agree with those who hold to particular redemption (aka "limited atonement"). I base this on verses like John 3:16; Romans 5:6; 1 John 2:2; et al. I do, however see strong Biblical support for the other four points. The definitions come primarily out of "The Potter's Freedom" by James White (good author, and I thought the definitions were good, but I disagree with his view of Particular Redemption). Total Depravity - Man is dead in sin, with every aspect of his being affected by the fall, unable to save himself. (Romans 3:10ff; Ephesians 2:1) Unconditional Election - God's choice is not based on anything man has done, but on Himself, alone. (Romans 9:15-16,18) Limited atonement - I touched on why I disagree with Particular Redemption at the top. Irresistible Grace - Luke 14:23, John 6:44. Note that God "compels" them to come in. "nobody comes to me unless he is drawn by My Father" Perseverance of the Saints or Eternal Security - Philippians 1:6 - He who began a work will perfect it until the day of Christ. Romans 8:28-39 - As far as God is concerned, even our glorification is assured, and that hasn't happened yet. (I view "glorified" as being proleptic (past tense to describe something that is assured, even though still future)). I would love to hear your thoughts. In Him, Benjamite |
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37 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34812 | ||
Hello Tim, You say that my view is logically inconsistent. I have presented what I believe to be solid Biblical support for the other four points of Calvinism, but I am willing to be corrected. I don't see Biblical support for Limited Atonement. You say that Calvinism is consistent if, and only if, one holds to all five points. This, in itself, is a difficult claim to make, because as proof of an "if-and-only-if" statement, you need to show how it is false with one side ("Logical consistency") matched with all other options of the other side (each point individually, any two points, any three points, or any four points). I do not expect that from you. That is really beside the point because whatever logic dictates, I care more about whether my view is Biblically consistent. Christ did die for all 1 John 2:2 "propitiation for the sins of the whole world" Romans 5:6 "Christ died for the ungodly (all of them)." Romans 5:8 may personalize this, but 5:6 says for "the ungodly" without qualification. John 3:16 "God so loved the world, that whosoever..." Hebrews 2:9 "He might taste death for everyone" God chose to save some - Romans 9 Man cannot and will not come to God of his own "free will" - Romans 3:10ff Once saved, saved forever - one cannot lose one's salvation - Romans 8:28ff; Philippians 1:6. Well, what do you think? In Him, Benjamite |
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38 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34820 | ||
Dear John, I admit, I have not read all the postings yet, but I assure you, I am not confused by the term. To quote James White, (in his defense of Calvinism, "The Potter's Freedom"), Limited Atonement says that, "The intention of Christ in His cross-work was to save His people specifically. Therefore, Christ's sacrifice is perfect and complete, for it actually accomplishes perfect redemption." I strongly disagree with the premise. Christ did die for, and was good enough to save, everybody - the world. 1 John 2:2 "propitiation for the sins of the whole world" Romans 5:6 "Christ died for the ungodly (all of them)." Romans 5:8 may personalize this, but 5:6 says for "the ungodly" without qualification. John 3:16 "God so loved the world, that whosoever..." Hebrews 2:9 "He might taste death for everyone" 2 Peter 2:1 speaks of false prophets, "denying the Master who bought them" In Him, Benjamite |
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39 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34823 | ||
Since you reject all but point 1, since according to Romans 3:10ff, nobody is righteous, nobody seeks after God, how then is anybody saved? In Him, Benjamite |
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40 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34917 | ||
Hi Zach, I agree with you about the Limited Atonement (and therefore won't take much time here). I do have a couple of quick questions. In Luke 14:23, what does it mean to "compel"? How are we to understand John 6:44-45, 64-65? In Him, Benjamite |
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