Results 221 - 240 of 300
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | John 1:18 "only begotten God". | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 76958 | ||
Hi Tim, You wrote: Is. 9:6 calls Jesus the 'Mighty God'. Yet, Jer. 32:18 also calls Jehovah the 'Mighty God'. The same exact phrase is used in both verses. In fact Tim both Isaiah 10:21 and Jeremiah 32:18 speak of Jehovah God as “mighty God.” Of course, if Jehovah is the Almighty God, he has to be a mighty God. But please, please don’t miss the point that only the superlatives and the infinites can dogmatically be limited to Jehovah, such as “the Most High.” Jesus is a god, a mighty god, and so is Jehovah a God, a mighty God. The term in the Hebrew, el gibbór, “mighty God,” is not limited to Jehovah, but the term el Shaddái, “God Almighty,” is. I asked a question the other day about John 1:18. Jesus being "a god" in John 1:18, differs from translation to translation. Why? From what Greek manuscripts are the most popular Bible translations from? Some translations say, “only begotten son” and some “only begotten god”. The phrase "monogenes theos" is found in manuscripts P66 and P75, as well as Codex Vaticanius and Codex Sinaiticus (and a few other manuscripts). The reading, "monogenes theos" is found in the vast majority of Greek witnesses and ancient translations. This is a classic example illustrating the two lines of manuscripts. --http://www.revelationwebsite.co.uk/index1/ Thus we have another question: Why lines of manuscripts? One supplanting in a rather ominous fashion, the true identity of the Almighty God, Jesus’ Father, and one promoting a totally different concept. This new concept of making Jesus not only the Father’s Son but Almighty God himself. Another question that must be answered is why ancient manuscripts began to change the original in regards to the Almighty God’s personal name. An honest investigation will contribute considerably to accurately understanding the true identity of our Heavenly Father and his beloved Son whom he gave as a ransom sacrifice for our sins. You answer that one question for me please Tim. Interestingly a few translations, in support of the Trinitarian “God the Son” concept, would invert the phrase mo·no·ge·nes´ the·os´ and render it as “God only begotten.” But W. J. Hickie in his Greek-English Lexicon to the New Testament (1956, p. 123) says it is hard to see why these translators render mo·no·ge·nes´ hui·os´ as “the only begotten Son,” but at the same time translate mo·no·ge·nes´ the·os´ as “God only begotten,” instead of “the only begotten God.”-Insight on the Scriptures John 1:18 reads: “No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom position with the Father is the one that has explained him.” The apostle John obviously is here referring to Jesus Christ, the Son of God. However, Jesus is not only the only-begotten Son of God but also a god, the only-begotten god. No doubt John used the Greek word for god, theós, here rather than the word huiós, “son,” because he wanted to stress Jesus’ godship rather than his sonship, in keeping with the opening verse of his Gospel in which he says of Jesus, “and the Word was a god.” Interestingly, not a few modern Bible translations that read “only-begotten Son” have footnotes indicating that other manuscripts read “God” instead of “Son.” This is true of the American Standard Version, the Revised Standard Version and Weymouth. Moffatt reads: “the divine One, the only Son,” but a footnote acknowledges that “theós (’the divine one’) is probably more original than the variant reading huiós.” Rotherham renders the expression: “an Only Begotten God,” and Msgr. Knox’s version states in a footnote: “Some of the best manuscripts here read ‘God, the only-begotten,’ instead of ‘the only-begotten Son.’”(continued) |
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222 | John 1:18 "only begotten God". | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 76959 | ||
(part 2) So it is seen that there is ample basis for the New World Bible Translation Committee to have rendered the passage as it did; and that Westcott and Hort had sound reasons for rendering the text the way they did is recognized by others. However, many translators stumbled at the expression “the only-begotten god” and therefore preferred the reading of lesser authorities to that of the best.-Awake published by Watchtower Bible and Tract Society; 06/01/62 p.351. Tim wrote: “We often get discussions about both the Deity of Christ and the accuracy of the doctrine of the Trinity. This verse speaks to both. I was preparing my Sunday School lesson for next week, when I really focused on this verse. Like most people, I tend to focus more on the first couple of verses of John 1. However, note what this verse says about Christ and the Trinity. 1) Of Christ, it says He is the only begotten God. This is as clear a statement as one will find that Jesus is God. John 1:18, No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him. The Greek word mo·no·ge·nes´ is defined by lexicographers as “single of its kind, only,” or “the only member of a kin or kind.” (Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, 1889, p. 417; Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon, Oxford, 1968, p. 1144) The term is used in describing the relation of both sons and daughters to their parents. Thus, Jesus is God’s “only” ... something. He is special. He is Jehovah’s mighty god! He is the only thing Jehovah “created” by himself. All other things visible and invisible Jehovah used Jesus to create. Jesus did it, Jehovah gets the credit as “Creator”, because it is through Jesus that Jehovah accomplished it. Truthfinder |
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223 | Which reading? | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 77287 | ||
I agree, Tim | ||||||
224 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Truthfinder | 88022 | ||
Hi Tim, Yes, Tim I agree if Christ died for Manasseh (guilty of shedding innocent blood in great quantity) which he did, (2Ki 21:10-16) then he did indeed die for "all". I agree with you on your arguement here. But show me please a verse that says that God's active force or holy spirit is specifically Jesus. I thought Jesus' second coming was much later than pennecost of 33 C.E. John 14:26, "But the helper, the holy spirit, which the Father will send in my name, that one will teach YOU all things and bring back to YOUR minds all the things I told YOU. Honestly, I have never read/argued the point of the Holy Spirit being Jesus as God, but I believe I have a sound basis for believing the way I do, and certainly agree that any time and every time Almighty God Jehovah accomplishes/ed something, his active force had to have been involved. Sincerly. Truthfinder |
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225 | IS MOSES GOD? | Acts 7:35 | Truthfinder | 90889 | ||
IS MOSES GOD? Who did the Children of Israel say brought them up out of the land of Egypt? Acts 7:40 Saying unto Aaron, Make us gods to go before us: for as for this Moses, which brought us out of the land of Egypt, we know not what is become of him. Who did Jehovah say brought them up? Exo 32:7 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go, get thee down; for thy people, which thou broughtest out of the land of Egypt, have corrupted themselves: Truthfinder |
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226 | IS MOSES GOD? | Acts 7:35 | Truthfinder | 90891 | ||
IS MOSES GOD? Who did the Children of Israel say brought them up out of the land of Egypt? Acts 7:40 Saying unto Aaron, Make us gods to go before us: for as for this Moses, which brought us out of the land of Egypt, we know not what is become of him. Who did Jehovah say brought them up? Exo 32:7 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go, get thee down; for thy people, which thou broughtest out of the land of Egypt, have corrupted themselves: Truthfinder |
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227 | origanal pronunciation for Jesus Christ | Acts 7:45 | Truthfinder | 90885 | ||
Hi Yoda, Hope this helps. Jesus is the Latinized form of the Gr. I·e·sous´, which corresponds to the Heb. Ye·shu a or Yehoh·shu a and means “Jehovah Is Salvation”. In Greek it is pronounced Hee ay soos. The name I·e·sous´ appears in the Greek text of Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 Truthfinder |
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228 | Does the bible talk about psychics? | Acts 16:16 | Truthfinder | 94217 | ||
Hi plong62, At Acts 16:16-19, the sacred record reports that “a certain servant girl” in the ancient city of Philippi furnished her masters with much gain by her “art of prediction.” The account plainly says, however, that the source of her predictions was, not the almighty Creator, but “a demon of divination.” Hence, when the apostle Paul expelled the demon, the servant girl lost her powers of prediction. When we understand that such predictions come from a demonic source, we see why God’s Law to Israel stated: “There should not be found in you . . . anyone who employs divination, a practicer of magic or anyone who looks for omens or a sorcerer, or one who binds others with a spell or anyone who consults a spirit medium or a professional foreteller of events . . . For everybody doing these things is something detestable to Jehovah.” (Deuteronomy 18:10-12) In fact, the Law made such practices a capital offense.—Leviticus 19:31; 20:6. It may surprise you to learn that evil forces are behind many seemingly harmless superstitious practices. Yet, the Bible says that Satan ‘transforms himself into an angel of light.’ (2 Corinthians 11:14) Satan and the demons under his control can make dangerous practices appear harmless, even beneficial. At times, they may fabricate portents and make them come true, deceiving onlookers into thinking that such omens are from God. (Compare Matthew 7:21-23; 2 Thessalonians 2:9-12.) This explains why some predictions made by those claiming special powers at times come true. Of course, many, if not most, who claim special powers are fakes, mere charlatans, out to bilk money from the unwary. But whether fakes or otherwise, they are all effectively used by Satan to turn people against Jehovah, blinding them to “the glorious good news.”—2 Corinthians 4:3, 4. Truthfinder |
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229 | Who did God punish for using a psychic? | Acts 16:16 | Truthfinder | 94220 | ||
Hi Jana T, All the various forms of divination, regardless of the name by which they are called, stand in sharp contrast with, and open defiance of, the Holy Bible. Jehovah through Moses sternly and repeatedly warned Israel not to take up these divination practices of the other nations, saying: “There should not be found in you anyone who makes his son or his daughter pass through the fire, anyone who employs divination, a practicer of magic or anyone who looks for omens or a sorcerer, or one who binds others with a spell or anyone who consults a spirit medium or a professional foreteller of events or anyone who inquires of the dead. For everybody doing these things is something detestable to Jehovah, and on account of these detestable things Jehovah your God is driving them away from before you.” (De 18:9-12; Le 19:26, 31) Even if their prophetic signs and portents came true, practicers of divination were not exempted from condemnation. (De 13:1-5; Jer 23:32; Zec 10:2) The Bible’s extreme hostility toward diviners is shown in its decree that all such were to be put to death without fail.—Ex 22:18; Le 20:27. But despite these repeated commandments, apostates flouted Jehovah—not just commoners like the woman of En-dor, but mighty kings like Saul and Manasseh, and Queen Jezebel. (1Sa 28:7, 8; 2Ki 9:22; 21:1-6; 2Ch 33:1-6) Though good King Josiah cleaned out the divination practitioners in his day, it was not enough to save Judah from being destroyed, as her sister kingdom Israel had been. (2Ki 17:12-18; 23:24-27) Jehovah, however, in his loving-kindness, first sent his prophets to warn them regarding their disgusting practices, the same as his prophets warned the mother of all divination, Babylon.—Isa 3:1-3; 8:19, 20; 44:24, 25; 47:9-15; Jer 14:14; 27:9; 29:8; Eze 13:6-9, 23; Mic 3:6-12; Zec 10:2. Divination was also very prevalent in the days of Jesus’ apostles. On the island of Cyprus, a sorcerer by the name of Bar-Jesus was struck with blindness because of his interference with the apostle Paul’s preaching; and in Macedonia, Paul cast a demon of divination out of a bothersome girl, much to the consternation of her masters, who made much gain by her occult power of prediction. (Ac 13:6-11; 16:16-19) However, others, like Simon of Samaria, voluntarily gave up their practice of magical arts, and at Ephesus there were so many who burned their books of divination that the value of them totaled 50,000 pieces of silver (if denarii, 37,200 dollars).—Ac 8:9-13; 19:19. Man’s natural desire to know the future is satisfied when he worships and serves his Grand Creator, for through God’s channel of communication He lovingly reveals ahead of time what it is good for man to know. (Am 3:7) However, when men turn away from Jehovah and become alienated from the only One who knows the end from the beginning, they easily fall victim to spiritistic demon influence. Saul is such a striking example, one who at first looked to Jehovah for knowledge of future events but who, after being cut off from all contact with God because of his unfaithfulness, turned to the demons as a substitute for divine guidance.—1Sa 28:6, 7; 1Ch 10:13, 14. A sharp distinction, therefore, exists between revealed truth from God and information obtained by divination. Those who turn to the latter are often seized in violent convulsions by invisible demonic powers, sometimes working themselves into a frenzy by weird music and certain drugs. No such physical or mental distortions are experienced by true servants of Jehovah when moved by holy spirit to speak. (Ac 6:15; 2Pe 1:21) God’s prophets in a sense of duty spoke freely without payment; the pagan diviners plied their trade for selfish personal gain. Nowhere in the Bible is any form of divination given a good connotation. Many times in the same condemnatory texts spiritistic practices of divination are spoken of together with adultery and fornication. (2Ki 9:22; Na 3:4; Mal 3:5; Ga 5:19, 20; Re 9:21; 21:8; 22:15) In God’s eyes divination is comparable to the sin of rebellion. (1Sa 15:23) It is, therefore, unscriptural to speak of Jehovah’s communication with his servants as a manifestation of “good” divination. Truthfinder |
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230 | What language did Jesus speak? | Acts 21:40 | Truthfinder | 71052 | ||
Hi, I understand that Jesus spoke at least, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Latin. On this question there is considerable difference of opinion among scholars. However, concerning languages used in Palestine when Jesus Christ was on earth, Professor G. Ernest Wright states: "Various languages were undoubtedly to be heard on the streets of the major cities. Greek and Aramaic were evidently the common tongues, and most of the urban peoples could probably understand both even in such 'modern' or 'western' cities as Caesarea and Samaria where Greek was the more common. Roman soldiers and officials might be heard conversing in Latin, while orthodox Jews may well have spoken a late variety of Hebrew with one another, a language that we know to have been neither classical Hebrew nor Aramaic, despite its similarities to both." Commenting further, on the language spoken by Jesus Christ, Professor Wright says: "The language spoken by Jesus has been much debated. We have no certain way of knowing whether he could speak Greek or Latin, but in his teaching ministry he regularly used either Aramaic or the highly Aramaized popular Hebrew. When Paul addressed the mob in the Temple, it is said that he spoke Hebrew (Acts 21:40). Scholars generally have taken this to mean Aramaic, but it is quite possible that a popular Hebrew was then the common tongue among the Jews."-Biblical Archaeology, 1963, p. 243. Truthfinder |
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231 | What language did Jesus speak? | Acts 21:40 | Truthfinder | 72899 | ||
Hi again, I understand that Josephus wrote that Matthew originally wrote Matthew in Hebrew and I have a copy of the New Testament in Hebrew and translate it. The only university study I have completed is with Daniel Sharon with Rice University, Houston, TX. I mainly study what scholars debate concerning certain texts. I do have a question for you though. How do you feel about how bias has played in Bible translation? As you no doubt know, grammatically certain texts can be accurately translated at least a couple of different ways. I will give you an example or two sometime. Truthfinder |
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232 | I NEED SOMEONE TO EXPOUND ON ROM 8:20 | Rom 8:20 | Truthfinder | 71113 | ||
Hi, Perhaps this will shed some light. After outlining the Christian conflict, Paul goes on to speak of the joint heirs with Christ as “sons of God.” Then he refers to others of mankind as “the creation” and presents the marvelous purpose of God “that the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:12-21. In due time all who live in heaven and on earth will be holy, for “the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:20, 21. “The eager expectation of the creation is waiting for the revealing of the sons of God. For the creation was subjected to futility, not by its own will but through him that subjected it, on the basis of hope that the creation itself also will be set free from enslavement to corruption and have the glorious freedom of the children of God.”—Ro 8:14, 17, 19-21. According to Paul’s words at Romans 8:20, 21, Jehovah God did not destroy man’s forefather Adam at the time of his sin, but he allowed men to be born from an imperfect father, with futility facing them not because of any deliberate fault of their own, but because of inherited imperfection. However, God did not leave them without hope but kindly set forth hope through the promised “seed” (Ge 3:15; 22:18), who is Jesus Christ. (Ga 3:16) Doubtless because the time of Messiah’s first coming had been forecast in prophecy, the preaching of John the Baptizer roused the expectations of the nation of Israel. (Lu 3:15; Da 9:24-27) Jesus fulfilled that hope by his ministry, death, and resurrection. But the great hope for mankind in general, both the living and the dead, lies in the Kingdom of Christ, when he and his joint heirs serve as heavenly kings and priests. Then mankind exercising faith will eventually be released from the corruption of imperfection and sin and will come to the full status of “children of God.” Their hope is reinforced by God’s resurrection of his Son more than 1,900 years ago.—Ac 17:31; 23:6; 24:15. “Insight to the Scriptures”. Truthfinder |
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233 | True believer | Rom 10:9 | Truthfinder | 95676 | ||
Hi Cris, I seriously doubt these verses were part of the original. Many spurious texts have appeared through time and serious Bible students have availed themselves of such discoveries in order to have the "truth" of God's Word. This stresses the need for being discreet in selecting what Bible translations to use and conclude what was original. Truthfinder |
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234 | Prove all things hold fast to the good.. | 1 Cor 15:1 | Truthfinder | 87460 | ||
Hi Goodnewsminister, Have you left the forum or are you coming back to dialogue perhaps with a few of us that agree with almost everything you've said? I have patiently sat back and read the replies, rebutals, but wanted to join and support you but perhaps waited too long. I understand frustration when we find so few that cannot understand/accept even the basics of Biblical truths as you have presented. Come back, be patient, and let's continue expounding these basics and if even one individual listens it will be worth the time and effort. Truthfinder |
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235 | Who are "the other Gods"? | 2 Cor 4:4 | Truthfinder | 75012 | ||
Hi, Actually the phrase “other gods” appears 84 times in the Bible and 5 times as “other god”. And you are exactly correct in saying that all are found only in the OT. Actually, anything that is worshiped can be termed a god, inasmuch as the worshiper attributes to it might greater than his own and venerates it. A person can even let his belly be a god. (Ro 16:18; Php 3:18, 19) The Bible makes mention of many gods (Ps 86:8; 1Co 8:5, 6), but it shows that the gods of the nations are valueless gods. Ps 96:5 says; ”For all the gods of the peoples are valueless gods; But as for Jehovah, he has made the very heavens.” At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW) At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ [God Almighty], which is applied to Jehovah at Genesis 17:1). Yes, all these are indeed “gods”, “other gods” if you will, as the term actually references. But there is truly only one Almighty God, Jesus’ Father, Jehovah. Truthseeker |
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236 | Where did the Holy Spirit go? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83325 | ||
Hi Graceful, Was God’s son Jesus, a spirit person like his Father, before coming to earth? (Php 2:5-8), but later “became flesh,” residing among mankind as the man Jesus. (Joh 1:14) Completing his earthly course, was he “put to death in the flesh, but [was] made alive in the spirit.” (1Pe 3:18) His Father resurrected him, granted his Son’s request to be glorified alongside the Father with the glory he had had in his prehuman state (Joh 17:4, 5), and God made him “a life-giving spirit.” (1Co 15:45)?? Did Jesus thus became again invisible to human sight, dwelling “in unapproachable light, whom not one of men has seen or can see.” that 1Ti 6:14-16 speaks of? Truthfinder |
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237 | Where did the Holy Spirit go? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83418 | ||
Very good, I for one agree with your thoughts. Might I add mine? John 5:18, Revised Standard Verson: “This was why the Jews sought all the more to kill him, because he not only broke the sabbath but also called God his Father, making himself equal with God.” I agree it was the unbelieving Jews who reasoned that Jesus was attempting to make himself equal with God by claiming God as his Father. While properly referring to God as his Father, Jesus never claimed equality with God. He straightforwardly answered the Jews: “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing.” (John 5:19, RS; see also John 14:28) John 10:36 says, 36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?” It was those unbelieving Jews, too, who claimed that Jesus broke the Sabbath, but they were wrong also about that. Jesus kept the Law perfectly, and he declared: “It is lawful to do good on the sabbath.”—Matt. 12:10-12, RS. Philippians 2:5, 6 comes into play here. The KJ reads: “Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.” (Dy has the same wording. JB reads: “he did not cling to his equality with God.”) However, in NW the latter portion of that passage reads: “who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure [Greek, har·pag·mon´], namely, that he should be equal to God.” Not only the NWT but also the RS, NE, TEV, NAB convey the same thought. But which thought agrees with the context? Verse 5 counsels Christians to imitate Christ in the matter here being discussed. Could they be urged to consider it “not robbery,” but their right, “to be equal with God”? Surely not! However, they can imitate one who “gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.” (NW) Compare Genesis 3:5 where Satan told Eve that she would be equal to God if she were to eat of the forbidden fruit. Such a translation also agrees with Jesus Christ himself, who said: “The Father is greater than I.” -John 14:28. I thus see no contridiction. Note what The Expositor’s Greek Testament says: “We cannot find any passage where [har·pa´zo] or any of its derivatives [including har·pag·mon´] has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize,’ ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense ‘grasp at’ into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’”—(Grand Rapids, Mich.; 1967), edited by W. Robertson Nicoll, Vol. III, pp. 436, 437. Truthfinder |
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238 | Was Jesus' spirit abandoned? | 2 Cor 5:21 | Truthfinder | 83420 | ||
“E´li, E´li, la´ma sa·bach·tha´ni?” (“My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”) (Mt 27:46; Mr 15:34) Hi Dan58, You write: I still don't understand in what sense Jesus was abandoned by God. I don't see whether or not Jesus' spirit was separated from God. I haven't checked the discussion on other verses that has already been posted. Would someone summarize the issues raised in other threads?Jesus’ question was a quotation from a psalm of David. (Ps. 22:1) If we look at David’s case, the question related to a momentary condition of abandonment. Surrounded by enemies, David found himself in a situation that made it appear that he was completely forsaken by his God, Jehovah. The tremendous strain resulting therefrom moved David to ask why it had happened despite his being unaware of any guilt. But David had not lost faith, for in the same psalm he prayed: “Do make haste to my assistance.” Ps. 22:16-19.So, in the same sence, when uttering the words of Psalm 22:1, Jesus keenly sensed that his Father had momentarily withdrawn his protection and “forsaken” or released him into the hands of his enemies, to die as an accursed criminal on a stake. (Gal. 3:13) In asking “why,” Jesus did not imply that he did not know the reason for this abandonment nor was he expecting an answer from his Father. The situation is comparable to that of a Christian who knows the reason for human suffering but is moved, under the weight of intense difficulties, to ask “why” either silently or audibly. The questioner thereby reveals that he has no reason to think that the suffering is due to his transgressions. Thus, besides fulfilling Psalm 22:1, Jesus’ outcry evidently served to confirm his innocence and focused on the real purpose for his suffering. (Matt. 27:46) compare also John 12:27, 28, 33. Truthfinder |
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239 | Mark 13:32 and 1 Corinthians 15:24,28 | Phil 2:6 | Truthfinder | 72927 | ||
Would someone please explain these verses. I understand and believe in the diety of Christ Jesus, but perhaps in a somewhat different way. Jesus, being the “Son” of the “Father” is thus from the Father. So, Jesus is not the Father nor the Almighty God, but his only begotten GOD "a son of GOD". Thus too he is lesser than his Father or Creator. (Mark 13:32) “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father. (1 Corinthians 15:24,28) Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone. Truthfinder |
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240 | Jesus is the Lord of Sabbath | Col 2:16 | Truthfinder | 83322 | ||
Hi, Well, while on earth, Jesus Christ referred to himself as “Lord of the sabbath.” (Mt 12:8) The literal Sabbath day, which was meant to bring the Israelites relief from their labors, was “a shadow of the things to come, but the reality belongs to the Christ.” (Col 2:16, 17) In connection with those “things to come,” there is a sabbath of which Jesus is to be the Lord. As Lord of lords, Christ will rule all the earth for a thousand years. (Re 19:16; 20:6) During his earthly ministry, Jesus performed some of his most outstanding miraculous works on the Sabbath. (Lu 13:10-13; Joh 5:5-9; 9:1-14) This to me, shows the kind of relief that he will bring as he raises or resurrects mankind to spiritual and physical perfection during his coming Millennial Rule, which thus will be like a period of sabbath rest for the earth and mankind. (Re 21:1-4). Truthfinder |
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