Results 261 - 280 of 300
|
||||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
261 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75382 | ||
24) Lattey, C. Westminister Version of the Sacred Scriptures 4vols. 1938 .......Jehovah 25) Berkeley Version 1963 ...................... Yahweh- Ps.147 Ps.8 Gen.22:14 Hosea12:5 26) Sharpe 1865 ............................................................................ Jehovah-many times 27) N.E.B. 1970 ....................................................................Jehovah p.XVI Gen. 4:26; ........................................................................Ex.3:l5-16 Ex.6:3; 33:19; 34:5-6; 35:31) 28) K.J.V. 1611 ................................................................................. Jehovah - 4 times 29) Westminster Version ............................................................. Jehovah -many Times 30) Anchor Bible .......................................................................... Yahweh -many times 31 ) Traina, A.B. Holy Name Bible 1963 ................................... Yahweh - many times 32) Bible in Basic English 1965 ......................................... Yahweh - Ex. 6:2, 3, 6; Ps. ........................................................................................83:18 Jah - Isa. 12:2; Isa. 26:4 33) Goodspeed and Smith The Bible.......................................Yahweh - Ex 3:16; Ex 6:3 -An American Tr. 1948 Yah -Isa 12:2; Isa. 26:4 34) Berkeley Version Bible in Modern English 1963 ...................Jehovah - Gen 22:14; ..............................................................Ex 6:3 Ps 8:1,9; Ex 3:15;Yahweh - Hosea 12:5 35) American Baptist Publication Society Holy Bible - An improved Edition 1913.......................................................................................................Jehovah - many times |
||||||
262 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75381 | ||
Hi again, The current preface of the NWT says "The text located in the U.S.S.R., namely, the Codex Leningrad B 19A, used for Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS), vowel-points the Tetragrammaton to read Yehwah´, Yehwih´ and a number of times Yeho·wah´, as in Ge 3:14. The edition of the Hebrew text by Ginsburg (Gins.) vowel-points YHWH to read Yeho·wah´. While many translators favor the pronunciation "Yahweh," the New World Translation continues to use the form "Jehovah" because of people's familiarity with it for centuries. Moreover, it preserves, equally with other forms, the four letters of the divine name, YHWH or JHVH" The first English translation to use Jehovah was William Tyndale in 1530. 1) New World Translation ............................................................Jehovah- many times 2) Grant's Numerical Bible ............................................................Jehovah- many times 3) Darby 1890 ...............................................................................Jehovah- many times 4) Dr. Conquest 1843 ....................................................................... Jehovah- Ps.83:18 5) Polyglott- English Version 1836 .................................................. Jehovah- Ps.83:18 6) Rotherham 1897 ....................................................................... Yahweh- many times 7) Ogden- The Basic Bible 1950 ......................................................Yahweh- Ps.83:18 8) Taylor- The Living Bible 1971 ................................................. Jehovah-many times 9) Young- Literal Translation ........................................................ Jehovah-many times 10) Joseph Smith - Inspired Version 1936 ed. ................................. Jehovah- Ps.83:18 - Book of Mormon ............................................................... Jehovah- on last page only 11) Moulton 1914 ............................................................. Jehovah - Ps.83:18 Ex.6:2-9 Ex.22:14 Ps.68:4 Jerm.16:20 Isa.12:2 ;26:4) 12) ASV 1901 ................................................................................ Jehovah-many times 13) Restoration of Original Sacred Name Bible 1970 .................. Yahweh-many times 14) Byington 1972 .........................................................................Jehovah- many times 15) Jerusalem Bible 1971 ............................................................ Yahweh- many times 16) Green, J.P. King James II 1971 .................................................. Jehovah- Ps.83:18 17) Green, J.P. Teenage Version 1962 .............................................. Jehovah-Ps.83:18 18) Green, J.P. Modern K . J . 1962 .................................................. Jehovah-Ps.83:18 19) Green, J.P. Children’s Version 1962 .......................................... Jehovah-Ps.83:18 20) Scott, T. 1816 ............................................................................. Jehovah-Ps-83:18 21) Geneva Version 1608 .................................................Iehouah- Gen.22:14Ps.83:18 22) Revised English Version 1898 .................................... Jehovah- Ex.6:2-3 Ps.83:18 23) Great Bible (Hexaplar Psalter) 1969 ....................................... Jehovah - Ps-33:12 Iehoua Ps,83:18) |
||||||
263 | Truthseekeer - Angels accepted worship? | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75235 | ||
Angels worshipped. Heb for worship(sha kah); Joshua 5:14 in King James: worship 99, bow 31, bow down 18, obeisance 9, reverence 5, fall down 3, themselves 2, stoop 1, crouch 1, miscellaneous 3 “And he said, Nay; but as captain of the host of the LORD am I now come. And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and did worship, and said unto him, What saith my lord unto his servant?” Also the American Standard translates the Hebrew as worship. And he said, Nay; but [as] prince of the host of Jehovah am I now come. And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and did worship, and said unto him, What saith my lord unto his servant? Gen. 18:2 “ When he raised his eyes, then he looked and there three men were standing some distance from him. When he caught sight of them he began running to meet them from the entrance of the tent and proceeded to bow down to the earth Gen. 23:7 “Thereupon Abraham got up and (worshipped) (sha kaw )(bowed down) (to) the natives, to the sons of Heth,” Hi Searcher, I noticed you provided your email in your profile. Searcher78@aol.com I have too, so if you’re interested in seeing what I have researched through the years perhaps email might be better. |
||||||
264 | Searching for the truth | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75201 | ||
(part 2) While some translators use the word “worship” in the majority of cases where pro·sky·ne o describes persons’ actions toward Jesus, the evidence does not warrant one’s reading too much into this rendering. Rather, the circumstances that evoked the obeisance correspond very closely with those producing obeisance to the earlier prophets and kings. (Compare Matthew 8:2; 9:18; 15:25; 20:20 with 1 Samuel 25:23, 24; 2 Samuel 14:4-7; 1 Kings 1:16; 2 Kings 4:36, 37.) The very expressions of those involved often reveal that, while they clearly recognized Jesus as God’s representative, they rendered obeisance to him, not as to God or a deity, but as “God’s Son,” the foretold “Son of man,” the Messiah with divine authority.—Matt. 14:32, 33; 28:5-10, 16-18; Luke 24:50-52; John 9:35, 38. While earlier prophets and also angels had accepted obeisance, Peter stopped Cornelius from rendering such to him. And the angel (or angels) of John’s vision twice stopped John from doing so, referring to himself as a “fellow slave” and concluding with the exhortation to “worship God.”—Acts 10:25, 26; Rev. 19:10; 22:8, 9. Evidently Christ’s coming had brought in new relationships affecting standards of conduct toward others of God’s servants. He taught his disciples that “one is your teacher, whereas all you are brothers . . . your Leader is one, the Christ.” (Matt. 23:8-12) For it was in him that the prophetic figures and types found their fulfillment, even as the angel told John that “the bearing witness to Jesus is what inspires prophesying.” (Rev. 19:10) Jesus was David’s Lord, the greater than Solomon, the prophet greater than Moses. (Luke 20:41-43; Matt. 12:42; Acts 3:19-24) The obeisance rendered those men prefigured that due Christ. Peter therefore rightly refused to let Cornelius make too much of him. So, too, John, by virtue of having been declared righteous or justified by God as an anointed Christian, called to be a heavenly son of God and a member of his Son’s kingdom, was in a different relationship to the angel(s) of the revelation than were the Israelites to whom angels earlier appeared. As the apostle Paul had written: “Do you not know that we shall judge angels?” (1 Cor. 6:3) The angel(s) evidently recognized this change of relationship when rejecting John’s obeisance. On the other hand, Christ Jesus has been exalted by his Father to a position second only to God, so that “in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.”—Phil. 2:9-11; compare Daniel 7:13, 14, 27. In view of all this, how are we to understand Hebrews 1:6, which shows that even the angels render “worship” to the resurrected Jesus Christ? While many translations of this text render pro·sky·néo as “worship,” some render it by such expressions as “bow before” (The Bible—An American Translation) and “pay homage” (The New English Bible). No matter what English term is used, the original Greek remains the same and the understanding of what it is that the angels render to Christ must accord with the rest of the Scriptures. If the rendering “worship” is preferred, then it must be understood that such “worship” is only of a relative kind. For Jesus himself emphatically stated to Satan that “it is Jehovah your God you must worship [form of pro·sky·ne·o], and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.” (Matt. 4:8-10; Luke 4:7, 8) True, Psalm 97, which the apostle evidently quotes at Hebrews 1:6, refers to Jehovah God as the object of the ‘bowing down,’ and still this text was applied to Christ Jesus. (Ps. 97:1, 7) However, the apostle previously had shown that the resurrected Christ became the “reflection of [God’s] glory and the exact representation of his very being.” (Heb. 1:1-3) Hence, if what we understand as “worship” is apparently directed to the Son by angels, it is in reality being directed through him to Jehovah God, the Sovereign Ruler, “the One who made the heaven and the earth and sea and fountains of waters.”—Rev. 14:7; 4:10, 11; 7:11, 12; 11:16, 17; compare 1 Chronicles 29:20; Revelation 5:13, 14. On the other hand, the renderings “bow before” and “pay homage” (instead of “worship”) are in no way out of harmony with the original language, either the Hebrew of Psalm 97:7 or the Greek of Hebrews 1:6, for such translations convey the basic sense of both sha·hhah and pro·sky·ne·o. Truthseeker |
||||||
265 | Searching for the truth | Heb 1:6 | Truthfinder | 75199 | ||
A Study of the Word--by Truthseeker Hi FytRobert I have compiled a study of the word “Worship”. When I quote from the Greek Septuagint Version of the Bible, I use the Baxter edition and Charles Thomson edition. Please take the time and look up the cited verses but not quoted. (For space sake) What prompted this study is the verse found in Hebrews 1:6 which reads: “But when he again brings his First-born into the inhabited earth, he says: ‘And let all God’s angels worship him.’” The writer of Hebrews (Paul) is here quoting from Psalm 97:7, which reads (in part): “Bow down to him, all you gods.” The Septuagint Version, from which this writer evidently quoted, reads: “Worship Him all ye His angels.”—C. Thomson. These texts seem to raise a problem because they appear to conflict with Jesus’ plain statement to Satan the Devil: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” -- Matt 4:10. The Greek word rendered “worship” at Hebrews 1:6 is pro·sky·ne o. This Greek word is also used at Psalm 97:7 in the Septuagint to translate the Hebrew sha·hhah. What is the sense of these Hebrew and Greek terms? Sha·hhah means basically “to bow down.” (Prov. 12:25) Such bowing might be done as an act of respect toward another human, as to a king (1 Sam. 24:8; 2 Sam. 24:20) or a prophet. (2 Ki. 2:15) Abraham bowed down to the Canaanite sons of Heth from whom he sought to buy a burial place. (Gen. 23:7) Isaac’s blessing on Jacob called for national groups and Jacob’s own “brothers” to bow down to him.—Gen. 27:29; compare 49:8. From the above examples it is clear that this Hebrew term of itself does not necessarily have a religious sense or signify worship. Nevertheless, in a large number of cases it is used in connection with worship, either of the true God (Ex. 24:1; Ps. 95:6) or of false gods—Deut. 4:19; 8:19. Bowing down to humans as an act of respect was admissible, but bowing to anyone other than Jehovah as a deity was prohibited by God. (Ex. 23:24; 34:14) Similarly, the worshipful bowing down to religious images or to any created thing was positively condemned. (Ex. 20:4, 5; Lev. 26:1; Deut. 4:15-19) Thus, in the Hebrew Scriptures, when certain of Jehovah’s servants prostrated themselves before angels, they only did so as recognizing that these were God’s representatives, not as rendering obeisance to them as deities.—Josh. 5:13-15; Gen. 18:1-3. The Greek pro·sky·ne·o corresponds closely with the Hebrew sha·hhah as to conveying the thought of both obeisance to creatures and worship to God or a deity. While the manner of expressing the obeisance is perhaps not so prominent in pro·sky·ne·o as in sha·hhah, where the Hebrew term graphically conveys the thought of prostration or bowing down, some lexicographers suggest that originally the Greek term did emphatically portray this idea. As with the Hebrew term, the context must be considered to determine whether pro·sky·ne o refers to obeisance solely in the form of deep respect or obeisance in the form of religious worship. Where reference is directly to God (John 4:20-24; 1 Cor. 14:25) or to false gods and their idols (Acts 7:43; Rev. 9:20), it is evident that the obeisance goes beyond that acceptably or customarily rendered to men and enters the field of worship. So, too, where the object of the obeisance is left unstated, its being directed to God being understood. (John 12:20; Acts 8:27; Heb. 11:21) On the other hand, the action of those of the “synagogue of Satan” who are made to “come and do obeisance” before the feet of Christians is clearly not worship.—Rev. 3:9. Obeisance to a human king is found in Jesus’ illustration at Matthew 18:26. It is also evident that this was the kind of obeisance the astrologers rendered to the child Jesus, “born king of the Jews,” and also that Herod professed interest in expressing, and that the soldiers mockingly rendered to Jesus before his impalement. They clearly did not view Jesus as God or as a deity.—Matt. 2:2, 8; Mark 15:19. (Continued) |
||||||
266 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75197 | ||
Jesus’ plain statement to Satan the Devil: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” -- Matt 4:10. See also Luke 4:8. And Jesus here is quoting Deut 10:20, so for him to quote means he would say what was originally written. Matthew was originally written in Hebrew, and the Hebrew texts here uses God’s name also, which is in English Jehovah. J1-14,16-18,20,22-24 (22 different Hebrew texts that use God’s name here)The Sacred Scriptures, Ethel Edition uses “Yahweh your Elohim”, which is a transliteration of the Hebrew not a translation of God’s name. Thus, Jesus did use God’s name. Sometime during the second or third century C.E. the scribes removed the Tetragrammaton from both the Septuagint and the Christian Greek Scriptures and replaced it with Ky´ri·os, “Lord” or The·os´, “God.” Concerning the use of the Tetragrammaton in the Christian Greek Scriptures, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: “Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God’s name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name, yhvh (and possibly abbreviations of it), was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the O[ld] T[estament] and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with the surrogate ks [abbreviation for Ky´ri·os, “Lord”]. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the ‘Lord God’ and the ‘Lord Christ’ which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself.” By the way, I have to disagree with you again when you say "If you ask the jew people of the real name of God they dont have idea about Jehovah", isn't true, as this is brought up in first year Hebrew class by Jewish instuctors, but is exactly what I've expained to you. How the "Hebrew" was pronounced is not certain but several possibilities are acceptable as my Hebrew instructor made plain so long as the consonants are used. I hope this helps you. Truthseeker |
||||||
267 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75024 | ||
Hi again, I'm sorry but any Bible scholar will tell what I'm showing you. As I already said, it depends on which language you want. For English, God’s name is Jehovah. And as you said before the “English” was then right you are again, Jehovah’s name wasn’t Jehovah because English wasn’t spoken. It depends on what language you want. I just assumed you spoke English and provided you with what God’s name is in English. If you speek Greek, I’ll show you what the Greek speeking Jews used instead of Jehovah, as I have a copy of an ancient manuscript that proves exactly that. As for no J’s in the Old Testament? Then using that reasoning, then Jeremiah wasn’t really Jeremiah’s name, and Job’s name wasn’t really Job, since there wasn’t J’s in the Old Testament times. And Jehu’s name and Jonah’s name and Jacob’s weren’t really these names. Could you please tell me what their names are today in English because I know what they are in Hebrew since I do indeed read Hebrew. Realize this though, divine blessing was conspicuously absent from that nation of the Hebrews as a whole at the time of Jesus Christ’s life and ministry on earth when God’s name had gone out of use due to the religious tradition of the Jews. The Jewish religious leaders of that day had become so alienated from God and his principles that not only did they shroud his name in secrecy but they also made themselves responsible for the death of his beloved Son. Not many years later, in 70 C.E., the Jews paid a terrible price for this when their temple and the holy city of Jerusalem were destroyed by the Roman armies. Did Jesus Christ and his disciples follow the Jewish tradition concerning God’s name? In a fearless way, Jesus condemned the tradition of the Pharisees and scribes, freeing his disciples from such spiritually deadening influences. He said to those “hypocrites”: “Why is it you also overstep the commandment of God because of your tradition? . . . You have made the word of God invalid because of your tradition.” Matt. 15:3-9. Did Jesus and his disciples, then, use God’s name freely? Assuredly so, for they all quoted frequently from the Scriptures that contained Jehovah’s name. They often used the Septuagint Version, a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek that began to be prepared in Alexandria about the third century B.C.E., copies of which still contained the Tetragrammaton. True, copies of the Septuagint Version made centuries later followed the Jewish tradition of omitting God’s name. But scrolls or portions of the Greek Septuagint dating from Jesus’ time on earth contain the Tetragrammaton in Hebrew characters. Jesus himself clearly indicated that he used the divine name. For instance, he said in prayer to his Father: “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world. . . . I have made your name known to them and will make it known.” (John 17:6, 26) Moreover, Jesus taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.” (Matt. 6:9) Why would Jesus make those statements unless he had used God’s name? So God’s name was widely used by his new chosen people, spiritual Israel, the Christian congregation. (Gal. 6:16) That is why certain translations of the Greek Scriptures (the “New Testament”) do include Jehovah’s name. For example, this is true of the Greek Scriptures in Hebrew, by Franz Delitzsch (1877); The Emphatic Diaglott, by Benjamin Wilson (1864); The Christian’s Bible—New Testament, by George N. LeFevre (1928), and the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures (1950), as well as other translations. In contrast, the majority of translations have followed the tradition of the Jews and have omitted God’s name. Not long after Jesus’ day, the foretold apostasy began to corrupt the true Christian doctrine and spirit. (2 Thess. 2:3; 2 Pet. 2:1-3) As the long night of the “Dark Ages” set in, the use of the divine name faded out. For many centuries, the very knowledge of God’s name was mainly confined to the cloister—available only to such scholars as monks. Many Jewish religious leaders of the first century C.E. were strongly influenced by pagan Greek philosophy. For example, Philo, a Jewish philosopher of Alexandria, believed that Plato, the famous Greek philosopher, was divinely inspired and taught that God was indefinable and, hence, unnameable. For over 1,000 years the theology of Christendom was molded by the teachings of Plato. See A History of Europe, by H. A. L. Fisher,. p. 52; The Encyclopædia Britannica, 1964 edition, Vol. 18, p. 63. Truthseeker |
||||||
268 | Who are "the other Gods"? | 2 Cor 4:4 | Truthfinder | 75012 | ||
Hi, Actually the phrase “other gods” appears 84 times in the Bible and 5 times as “other god”. And you are exactly correct in saying that all are found only in the OT. Actually, anything that is worshiped can be termed a god, inasmuch as the worshiper attributes to it might greater than his own and venerates it. A person can even let his belly be a god. (Ro 16:18; Php 3:18, 19) The Bible makes mention of many gods (Ps 86:8; 1Co 8:5, 6), but it shows that the gods of the nations are valueless gods. Ps 96:5 says; ”For all the gods of the peoples are valueless gods; But as for Jehovah, he has made the very heavens.” At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ´elo·him´, as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh´ ha·´Elo·him´, “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ´elo·him´ is rendered “angels” (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW) At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ´El Gib·bohr´, “Mighty God” (not ´El Shad·dai´ [God Almighty], which is applied to Jehovah at Genesis 17:1). Yes, all these are indeed “gods”, “other gods” if you will, as the term actually references. But there is truly only one Almighty God, Jesus’ Father, Jehovah. Truthseeker |
||||||
269 | WHERE TO FIND ALL THE NAMES OF GOD | Ps 83:18 | Truthfinder | 75010 | ||
Hi, God has only one personal name. Among the Hebrew words that are translated “God” is ´El, probably meaning “Mighty One; Strong One.” (Ge 14:18) It is used with reference to Jehovah, to other gods, and to men. It is also used extensively in the makeup of proper names, such as Elisha (meaning “God Is Salvation”) and Michael (“Who Is Like God?”). In some places ´El appears with the definite article (ha·´El´, literally, “the God”) with reference to Jehovah, thereby distinguishing him from other godsYou mentioned god in the Hebrew language elohim, but this doesn’t reference only God Almighty. Also you mention EL-SHADAII, also Hebrew for God Almighty. But if you speak another language then you could come up with thousands. Almighty God has only one name. That name is Je·ho´vah [the causative form, the imperfect state, of the Heb. verb ha·wah´ (become); meaning “He Causes to Become”]. The personal name of God. Isa 42:8 “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven images. Also Isa 54:5 “For your Grand Maker is your husbandly owner, Jehovah of armies being his name; and the Holy One of Israel is your Repurchaser. The God of the whole earth he will be called. Though Scripturally designated by such descriptive titles as “God,” “Sovereign Lord,” “Creator,” “Father,” “the Almighty,” and “the Most High,” his personality and attributes—who and what he is—are fully summed up and expressed only in this personal name. Ps 83:18. Many modern scholars and Bible translators advocate following the tradition of eliminating the distinctive name of God. They not only claim that its uncertain pronunciation justifies such a course but also hold that the supremacy and uniqueness of the true God make unnecessary his having a particular name. Such a view receives no support from the inspired Scriptures, either those of pre-Christian times or those of the Christian Greek Scriptures. The Tetragrammaton occurs 6,828 times in the Hebrew text printed in Biblia Hebraica and Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia. In the Hebrew Scriptures the New World Translation contains the divine name 6,973 times, because the translators took into account, among other things, the fact that in some places the scribes had replaced the divine name with ´Adho·nai´ or ´Elo·him´. (See NW appendix, pp. 1561, 1562.) The very frequency of the appearance of the name attests to its importance to the Bible’s Author, whose name it is. Its use throughout the Scriptures far outnumbers that of any of the titles, such as “Sovereign Lord” or “God,” applied to him. Noteworthy, also, is the importance given to names themselves in the Hebrew Scriptures and among Semitic peoples. Professor G. T. Manley points out: “A study of the word ‘name’ in the O[ld] T[estament] reveals how much it means in Hebrew. The name is no mere label, but is significant of the real personality of him to whom it belongs. . . . When a person puts his ‘name’ upon a thing or another person the latter comes under his influence and protection.”—New Bible Dictionary, edited by J. D. Douglas, 1985, p. 430; compare Everyman’s Talmud, by A. Cohen, 1949, p. 24; Ge 27:36; 1Sa 25:25; Ps 20:1; Pr 22:1 Truthseeker |
||||||
270 | Who did God speak to? | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 73480 | ||
Hi, A two year old post. O well, wanted to comment regardless. The three recorded occasions in the Bible where Almighty God Jehovah spoke directly from heaven to people on earth are as follows: (Matthew 3:17) Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” (Matthew 17:5) While he was yet speaking, look! a bright cloud overshadowed them, and, look! a voice out of the cloud, saying: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved; listen to him.” (John 12:28) Father, glorify your name.” Therefore a voice came out of heaven: “I both glorified [it] and will glorify [it] again.” Doubtless on many occasions during his prehuman existence as the Word, Jesus acted as Jehovah’s Spokesman to persons on earth. While certain texts refer to Jehovah as though directly speaking to humans, other texts make clear that he did so through an angelic representative. (Compare Ex 3:2-4 with Ac 7:30, 35; also Ge 16:7-11, 13; 22:1, 11, 12, 15-18.) Reasonably, in the majority of such cases God spoke through the Word. He likely did so in Eden, for on two of the three occasions where mention is made of God’s speaking there, the record specifically shows someone was with Him, undoubtedly his Son. (Ge 1:26-30; 2:16, 17; 3:8-19, 22) The angel who guided Israel through the wilderness and whose voice the Israelites were strictly to obey because ‘Jehovah’s name was within him,’ may therefore have been God’s Son, the Word. See Ex 23:20-23; and Jos 5:13-15. Truthfinder |
||||||
271 | John 1:18 "only begotten God". | Not Specified | Truthfinder | 73344 | ||
Hi all, I was reading some of the comments about John 1:18, but they were a couple of years back, and notice those that commented haven't commented for a year or two, except Tim Morgan. Anyway, any comments as to why different Bibles use Son instead of God in this verse. ho monogenes gios, instead of "theos". My NKJV Greek English Interlinear has an explanation but ultimately, why are different mss so different? The NIV's translation has to about the worse I have seen; "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." True it is not a "literal" translation but come on! Notice the New American Standard's: No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained (Him.)" Now I can understand that one. And my second question is what does (monogenous) "only-begotten" in this verse mean? Let's get into it in depth. Our having access to lexicons on the "Net" enables us to "reason" on the semantics of various orignal-language words. Any comments?, because this verse shows me how John 1:1 should accurately be translated not colored by theology nor bias, but allowing theology to play a legitimate role in our translations. I'm in no hurry, just sincere and enjoying "Bible study" (both learning and sharing what I have learned). Truthfinder |
||||||
272 | John 1:18 "only begotten God". | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 73428 | ||
Hi all, I was reading some of the comments about John 1:18, but they were a couple of years back, and notice those that commented haven't commented for a year or two, except Tim Morgan. Anyway, any comments as to why different Bibles use Son instead of God in this verse. ho monogenes gios, instead of "theos". My NKJV Greek English Interlinear has an explanation but ultimately, why are different mss so different? The NIV's translation has to about the worse I have seen; "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." True it is not a "literal" translation but come on! Notice the New American Standard's: No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained (Him.)" Now I can understand that one. And my second question is what does (monogenous) "only-begotten" in this verse mean? Let's get into it in depth. Our having access to lexicons on the "Net" enables us to "reason" on the semantics of various orignal-language words. Any comments?, because this verse shows me how John 1:1 should accurately be translated not colored by theology nor bias, but allowing theology to play a legitimate role in our translations. I'm in no hurry, just sincere and enjoying "Bible study" (both learning and sharing what I have learned). Truthfinder |
||||||
273 | Mark 13:32 and 1 Corinthians 15:24,28 | Not Specified | Truthfinder | 72920 | ||
Would someone please explain these verses. I understand and believe in the diety of Christ Jesus, but perhaps in a somewhat different way. Jesus, being the “Son” of the “Father” is thus from the Father. So, Jesus is not the Father nor the Almighty God, but his only begotten GOD "a son of GOD". Thus too he is lesser than his Father or Creator. (Mark 13:32) “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father. (1 Corinthians 15:24,28) Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone. Truthfinder |
||||||
274 | Mark 13:32 and 1 Corinthians 15:24,28 | Phil 2:6 | Truthfinder | 72927 | ||
Would someone please explain these verses. I understand and believe in the diety of Christ Jesus, but perhaps in a somewhat different way. Jesus, being the “Son” of the “Father” is thus from the Father. So, Jesus is not the Father nor the Almighty God, but his only begotten GOD "a son of GOD". Thus too he is lesser than his Father or Creator. (Mark 13:32) “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father. (1 Corinthians 15:24,28) Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone. Truthfinder |
||||||
275 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 72918 | ||
Part 2 There are also other correspondencies establishing that Michael is actually the Son of God. Daniel, after making the first reference to Michael (Da 10:13), recorded a prophecy reaching down to “the time of the end” (Da 11:40) and then stated: “And during that time Michael will stand up, the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of [Daniel’s] people.” (Da 12:1) Michael’s ‘standing up’ was to be associated with “a time of distress such as has not been made to occur since there came to be a nation until that time.” (Da 12:1) In Daniel’s prophecy, ‘standing up’ frequently refers to the action of a king, either taking up his royal power or acting effectively in his capacity as king. (Da 11:2-4, 7, 16b, 20, 21) This supports the conclusion that Michael is Jesus Christ, since Jesus is Jehovah’s appointed King, commissioned to destroy all the nations at Har–Magedon. Re 11:15; 16:14-16. The book of Revelation (12:7, 10, 12) specifically mentions Michael in connection with the establishment of God’s Kingdom and links this event with trouble for the earth: “And war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels battled with the dragon, and the dragon and its angels battled. And I heard a loud voice in heaven say: ‘Now have come to pass the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God and the authority of his Christ, because the accuser of our brothers has been hurled down . . . On this account be glad, you heavens and you who reside in them! Woe for the earth and for the sea.’” Jesus Christ is later depicted as leading the heavenly armies in war against the nations of the earth. (Re 19:11-16) This would mean a period of distress for them, which would logically be included in the “time of distress” that is associated with Michael’s standing up. (Da 12:1) Since the Son of God is to fight the nations, it is only reasonable that he was the one who with his angels earlier battled against the superhuman dragon, Satan the Devil, and his angels. In his prehuman existence Jesus was called “the Word.” (Joh 1:1) He also had the personal name Michael. By retaining the name Jesus after his resurrection (Ac 9:5), “the Word” shows that he is identical with the Son of God on earth. His resuming his heavenly name Michael and his title (or name) “The Word of God” (Re 19:13) ties him in with his prehuman existence. The very name Michael, asking as it does, “Who Is Like God?” points to the fact that Jehovah God is without like, or equal, and that Michael his archangel is his great Champion or Vindicator. Truthfinder |
||||||
276 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 72917 | ||
Hi Colin, You wrote: The NWT mentions Michael 5 times as 1)"one of the foremost princes..." (Dan 10.13); 2)"the prince of Daniel's people..." (Dan 10.21); 3) "the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of [Daniel's] people" (Dan 12.1); 4) "the archangel who had a difference with the devil and was disputing about Moses' body" but "did not dare to bring a judgement against him in abusive terms" (Jude 9); and 5) an actor in Heaven's conflict when "Michael and his angels battled with the dragon" (Rev. 12.7) Well, Michael is the only holy angel other than Gabriel named in the Bible, and the only one called “archangel” according to Jude 9. As you say the first occurrence of the name is in the tenth chapter of Daniel, where Michael is described as “one of the foremost princes”; he came to the aid of a lesser angel who was opposed by “the prince of the royal realm of Persia.” Michael was called “the prince of Daniel’s people,” “the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of Daniel’s people.” (Daniel 10:13,20,21) But the prince of the royal realm of Persia was standing in opposition to me for twenty-one days, and, look! Mi'cha·el, one of the foremost princes, came to help me; and I, for my part, remained there beside the kings of Persia. 20 So he went on to say: “Do you really know why I have come to you? And now I shall go back to fight with the prince of Persia. When I am going forth, look! also the prince of Greece is coming. 21 However, I shall tell you the things noted down in the writing of truth, and there is no one holding strongly with me in these [things] but Mi'cha·el, the prince of YOU people. (Daniel 12:1) “And during that time Mi'cha·el will stand up, the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of your people. And there will certainly occur a time of distress such as has not been made to occur since there came to be a nation until that time. And during that time your people will escape, every one who is found written down in the book. This points to Michael as the angel who led the Israelites through the wilderness. (Ex 23:20, 21, 23; 32:34; 33:2) Lending support to this conclusion is the fact that “Michael the archangel had a difference with the Devil and was disputing about Moses’ body.” (Jude 9) But when Mi'cha·el the archangel had a difference with the Devil and was disputing about Moses’ body, he did not dare to bring a judgment against him in abusive terms, but said: “May Jehovah rebuke you.” Scriptural evidence indicates that the name Michael applied to God’s Son before he left heaven to become Jesus Christ and also after his return. Michael is the only one said to be “the archangel,” meaning “chief angel,” or “principal angel.” The term occurs in the Bible only in the singular. This seems to imply that there is but one whom God has designated chief, or head, of the angelic host. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 the voice of the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ is described as being that of an archangel, suggesting that he is, in fact, himself the archangel. This text depicts him as descending from heaven with “a commanding call.” It is only logical, therefore, that the voice expressing this commanding call be described by a word that would not diminish or detract from the great authority that Christ Jesus now has as King of kings and Lord of lords. (Matthew 28:18) And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth. (Revelation 17:14) These will battle with the Lamb, but, because he is Lord of lords and King of kings, the Lamb will conquer them. Also, those called and chosen and faithful with him [will do so].” If the designation “archangel” applied, not to Jesus Christ, but to other angels, then the reference to “an archangel’s voice” would not be appropriate. In that case it would be describing a voice of lesser authority than that of the Son of God. (continued) Truthfinder |
||||||
277 | Genesis 1: light ? | Genesis | Truthfinder | 72910 | ||
Hi Maydayjohn, 1)The very first verse of the Bible states: “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” (Genesis 1:1) 1)Here is where God created the “sun”. 2)Day 1. ”Let light come to be.’ Then there came to be light. And God began calling the light Day, but the darkness he called Night. And there came to be evening and there came to be morning, a first day.” Genesis 1:3, 5. 2) So, the sun and moon were in outer space long before this first “day,” but their light did not reach the surface of the earth for an earthly observer to see. Now, light evidently came to be visible on earth on this first “day,” and the rotating earth began to have alternating days and nights. Apparently, the light came in a gradual process, extending over a long period of time, not instantaneously as when you turn on an electric light bulb. The Genesis rendering by translator J. W. Watts reflects this when it says: “And gradually light came into existence.” (A Distinctive Translation of Genesis) This light was from the sun, but the sun itself could not be seen through the overcast. Hence, the light that reached earth was “light diffused,” as indicated by a comment about Ge:3 in Rotherham’s Emphasised Bible. 3)Day 4 “‘Let luminaries come to be in the expanse of the heavens to make a division between the day and the night; and they must serve as signs and for seasons and for days and years. And they must serve as luminaries in the expanse of the heavens to shine upon the earth.’ And it came to be so. And God proceeded to make the two great luminaries, the greater luminary for dominating the day and the lesser luminary for dominating the night, and also the stars.” Genesis 1:14-16. Previously, on the first “day,” the expression “Let light come to be” was used. The Hebrew word there used for “light” is ’ohr, meaning light in a general sense. But on the fourth “day,” the Hebrew word changes to ma·’ohr', which means the source of the light. Rotherham, in a footnote on “Luminaries” in the Emphasised Bible, says: “In verse 3 , ’ôr [’ohr], light diffused.” Then he goes on to show that the Hebrew word ma·’ohr' in Ge 1 verse 14 means something “affording light.” On the first “day” diffused light evidently penetrated the swaddling bands, but the sources of that light could not have been seen by an earthly observer because of the cloud layers still enveloping the earth. Now, on this fourth “day,” things apparently changed. An atmosphere initially rich in carbon dioxide may have caused an earth-wide hot climate. But the lush growth of vegetation during the third and fourth creative periods would absorb some of this heat-retaining blanket of carbon dioxide. The vegetation, in turn, would release oxygen—a requirement for animal life. Psalm 136:7-9. Now, had there been an earthly observer, he would be able to discern the sun, moon and stars, which would “serve as signs and for seasons and for days and years.” (Genesis 1:14) The moon would indicate the passing of lunar months, and the sun the passing of solar years. The seasons that now “came to be” on this fourth “day” would no doubt have been much milder than they became later on. Genesis 1:15; 8:20-22. Truthfinder |
||||||
278 | What language did Jesus speak? | Acts 21:40 | Truthfinder | 72899 | ||
Hi again, I understand that Josephus wrote that Matthew originally wrote Matthew in Hebrew and I have a copy of the New Testament in Hebrew and translate it. The only university study I have completed is with Daniel Sharon with Rice University, Houston, TX. I mainly study what scholars debate concerning certain texts. I do have a question for you though. How do you feel about how bias has played in Bible translation? As you no doubt know, grammatically certain texts can be accurately translated at least a couple of different ways. I will give you an example or two sometime. Truthfinder |
||||||
279 | Elijah went to heaven alive | 2 Kin 2:11 | Truthfinder | 72857 | ||
Elijah and Enoch The Hebrew sha·ma'yim (always in the plural), which is rendered “heaven(s),” seems to have the basic sense of that which is high or lofty. (Ps 103:11; Pr 25:3; Isa 55:9) “The heaven(s)” may apply to the full range of earth’s atmosphere in which dew and frost form (Ge 27:28; Job 38:29), the birds fly (De 4:17; Pr 30:19; Mt 6:26), the winds blow (Ps 78:26), lightning flashes (Lu 17:24), and the clouds float and drop their rain, snow, or hailstones (Jos 10:11; 1Ki 18:45; Isa 55:10; Ac 14:17). “The sky” is sometimes meant, that is, the apparent or visual dome or vault arching over the earth.—Mt 16:1-3; Ac 1:10, 11. This atmospheric region corresponds generally to the “expanse [Heb., ra·qi'a]” formed during the second creative period, described at Genesis 1:6-8. It is evidently to this "heaven" that Genesis 2:4; Exodus 20:11; 31:17 refer in speaking of the creation of “the heavens and the earth.” In harmony with Elijah’s action in appointing Elisha years earlier, the time comes when Elijah must transfer the mantle of this prophetic office to Elisha, who has been well trained. This takes place during the rule of Ahaziah’s successor, his brother Jehoram of Israel. At that time Elijah goes to Bethel, from there to Jericho and down to the Jordan, Elisha sticking close to him all the way. There Elisha is rewarded for his faithfulness by seeing a fiery war chariot and fiery horses and Elijah ascending in a windstorm to the heavens. Elisha takes up Elijah’s official garment that had fallen off him, and “two parts” (like a firstborn son’s portion) in Elijah’s spirit, a spirit of courage and of being “absolutely jealous for Jehovah the God of armies,” come on him.—2Ki 2:1-13; 1Ki 19:10, 14; compare De 21:17. Elijah does not die at this time, nor does he go into the invisible spirit realm, but he is transferred to another prophetic assignment. As John 3:13 tells us “Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man.” This is shown by the fact that Elisha does not hold any period of mourning for his master. A number of years after his ascension in the windstorm Elijah is still alive and active as a prophet, this time to the king of Judah. Because of the wicked course taken by King Jehoram of Judah, Elijah writes him a letter expressing Jehovah’s condemnation, which is fulfilled shortly thereafter. Read 2Ch 21:12-15 Enoch, the son born to Jared at the age of 162; the seventh man in the genealogical line from Adam. In addition to Methuselah, who was born to him when he was 65 years old, Enoch had other sons and daughters. Enoch was one of the “so great a cloud of witnesses” who were outstanding examples of faith in ancient times. “Enoch kept walking with the true God.” (Ge 5:18, 21-24; Heb 11:5; 12:1) As a prophet of Jehovah, he foretold God’s coming with His holy myriads to execute judgment against the ungodly. (Jude 14, 15) Likely persecution was brought against him because of his prophesying. However, God did not permit the opposers to kill Enoch. Instead, Jehovah “took him,” that is, cut short his life at the age of 365, an age far below that of most of his contemporaries. Enoch was “transferred so as not to see death,” which may mean that God put him in a prophetic trance and then terminated Enoch’s life while he was in the trance so that he did not experience the pangs of death. (Ge 5:24; Heb 11:5, 13) However, he was not taken to heaven, in view of Jesus’ clear statement at John 3:13: “Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man.” It appears that, as in the case of Moses’ body, Jehovah disposed of Enoch’s body, for “he was nowhere to be found.”—De 34:5, 6; Jude 9. “Insight in the Scriptures” Truthfinder |
||||||
280 | who wrote Zephaniah? When was Zephaniah | Zeph 1:1 | Truthfinder | 71596 | ||
Hi Cassie, Writer: Zephaniah Place Written: Judah Writing Completed: Before 648 B.C.E. Early in the reign of King Josiah of Judah (659-629 B.C.E.), at a time when Baal worship was running rampant and "the foreign-god priests" were taking a lead in this unclean worship, the people of Jerusalem must have been startled by the message proclaimed by the prophet Zephaniah. Though he was possibly a descendant of King Hezekiah of the royal house of Judah, Zephaniah was highly critical of conditions in the nation. (Zeph. 1:1, 4) His message was one of doom. God's people had become disobedient, and only Jehovah could restore them to pure worship and bless them so that they might serve as "a name and a praise among all the peoples of the earth." (3:20) Zephaniah pointed out that only by divine intervention might one "be concealed in the day of Jehovah's anger." (2:3) How appropriate his name Tsephan·yah' (Hebrew), meaning "Jehovah Has Concealed (Treasured Up)"! Zephaniah's efforts bore fruit. King Josiah, who had ascended the throne at the age of eight, started in the 12th year of his reign "to cleanse Judah and Jerusalem." He rooted out false worship, repaired "the house of Jehovah," and reinstituted the celebration of the Passover. (2 Chron., chaps. 34, 35) King Josiah's reforms were only temporary, however, for he was succeeded by three of his sons and one of his grandsons, all of whom did "bad in the eyes of Jehovah." (2 Chron. 36:1-12) This was all in fulfillment of Zephaniah's words: "I will give attention to the princes, and to the sons of the king, and to . . . those who are filling the house of their masters with violence and deception."-Zeph. 1:8, 9. From the above it appears that "the word of Jehovah . . . occurred to Zephaniah" sometime before 648 B.C.E., the 12th year of Josiah. Not only does the first verse identify him as speaking in Judah but the detailed knowledge he shows of the localities and customs of Jerusalem argue for his residence in Judah. The message contained in the book is twofold, being both threatening and consoling. For the most part, it centers around the day of Jehovah, a day of terror that is imminent, but at the same time, it foretells that Jehovah will restore a humble people that "actually take refuge in the name of Jehovah."-1:1, 7-18; 3:12. The authenticity of this book of prophecy cannot be successfully disputed. Jerusalem was destroyed in 607 B.C.E., more than 40 years after Zephaniah had foretold it. Not only do we have secular history's word for this but the Bible itself contains internal proof that this happened exactly as Zephaniah had prophesied. Shortly after Jerusalem's destruction, Jeremiah wrote the book of Lamentations, describing the horrors he had witnessed, while they were still vivid in his mind. A comparison of several passages bears out that Zephaniah's message is indeed "inspired of God." Zephaniah warns of the need for repentance "before there comes upon you people the burning anger of Jehovah," whereas Jeremiah refers to something that has already happened when he says, "Jehovah . . . has poured out his burning anger." (Zeph. 2:2; Lam. 4:11) Zephaniah foretells that Jehovah "will cause distress to mankind, and they will certainly walk like blind men . . . And their blood will actually be poured out like dust." (Zeph. 1:17) Jeremiah speaks of this as an accomplished fact: "They have wandered about as blind in the streets. They have become polluted with blood."-Lam. 4:14; compare also Zephaniah 1:13-Lamentations 5:2; Zephaniah 2:8, 10-Lamentations 1:9, 16 and 3:61. History likewise reports the destruction of the heathen nations, Moab and Ammon as well as Assyria, including its capital Nineveh, just as Zephaniah had foretold at God's direction. Even as the prophet Nahum foretold Nineveh's destruction (Nah. 1:1; 2:10), so Zephaniah declared that Jehovah "will make Nineveh a desolate waste, a waterless region like the wilderness." (Zeph. 2:13) This destruction was so complete that scarcely 200 years later, the historian Herodotus wrote of the Tigris as "the river upon which the town of Nineveh formerly stood." About 150 C.E. the Greek writer Lucian wrote that "there is not a trace of it left now." |
||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 ] Next > Last [15] >> |