Results 361 - 380 of 3083
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Ray Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
361 | Only for the early Church? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122396 | ||
Hi WTB, I reread your question to see if I had spoken anything at all to it on this thread so far. You wrote, "The Holy Ghost empowers the true Church to be witnesses to Him (Jesus),...[to bring] souls to Him." I certainly agree with you; and the thought that came to me when considering your parenthesis around Jesus is just what do we think about Him and what do we PROFESS about Him. Acts 1:8 to my mind tells us to be witnesses to the (Spirit). When the Holy Spirit comes upon us we become witnesses for (Jesus) but it is in the sense that we know that He is God and God is Spirit. I would also like to speak to the thought of POSSESSING the Holy Spirit. General thoughts to everyone: We do not possess God. We do not possess the Holy Spirit. I would not even say that we possess the holy spirit. The idea is that we are "possessed" , guided, controlled by the words and thoughts of the Holy Spirit as put forth in the word of God and with which we have filled our minds and hearts. Being filled with "holy spirit" is what kind of spirit we are of. The works that Jesus did were to explain that the Father had sent Him. He glorified God on the earth. God gave Him words to say and He spoke them. John 17:8, "...and they received them, and truly understood that I came forth from Thee, and they believed that Thou didst send Me." Now we have the Spirit of truth. John 16:12, "I have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13 But when He, the Spirit of truth comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. 14 He shall glorify Me; for He shall take of Mine, and shall disclose it to you." John 17:17, "Sanctify them in the truth; Thy word is truth. As Thou didst send Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they themselves also may be sanctified in truth." We are to witness to the truth of the word of God. Speaking of the love of Christ and God our Savior is the best way of speaking in tongues. From the heart, Ray |
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362 | Spirit or spirit? Him or it? Distinguish | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122484 | ||
Hi Steve, What I indicated above is that we have a choice of lower or upper case S. My question was "Are these gifts of or from?" What I would say is that the gift that we receive FROM the Holy Spirit is salvation; plus the word of wisdom, knowledge, faith, healing, various tongues, etc (1 Cor 12). Is that what you would say, however? 1 Cor 12:11 goes on with, "But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually just as He wills." He distributes the gifts, even the living water of John 4:10 when we know Him, the Giver. My question to you would be "Does He give the Spirit or the spirit without measure?" From the heart, Ray What I want people to consider is the gift OF holy spirit FROM the Holy Spirit. |
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363 | Spirit/spirit?Is Spirit given or spirit? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122740 | ||
Hi Walking Talking Bible, You wrote that Acts 8:18-19 talks about the Holy Ghost Himself. However, could I disagree and suggest that the verses talk about the gift [sic] of God. You wrote and said that Acts 2:38 says to your mind that God Himself is a gift. If you were interpreting this verse with capitalization, would you write the Gift and the Promise? Acts 2:38, "And Peter, said to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the (g)Gift of [would you say from?]the (h)Holy (s)Spirit. 39 For the Promise [would that be your interpretation?] is for you and your children, and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself." 2 Timothy 1:16 pretty clearly tells us that the gift of God which is in you through the laying on of hands and which God has given you, is a spirit of power and love and discipline. From the heart, Ray |
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364 | A spirit of timidity? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122781 | ||
Hi WTB, I loved your post but must ask you "Is the Word an It?" I would encourage you to rephrase that and say that "the devil knows what the *word says but he will not put *it into action!" Is the Spirit an It? 1 John 6:63, "It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life." I would offer this interpretation: "The **Spirit is the *One who gives life; the flesh profits nothing;..." 1 John 5:16, "If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask and **God will for him give life... 18 We know that no one who is born of *God sins;..." 2 Corinthians 1:22, my interpretation for what it is worth; "**He also sealed us and gave us the (s)pirit in our hearts as a pledge. [A down payment]. But I call *God as witness to my soul..." 2 Timothy 1:7, "For **God has not given us a spirit of timidity, but of power and love and discipline. Therefore do not be ashamed of the testimony of our *Lord, or of me His prisoner; but join with me in suffering for the gospel according to the power of God,..." Are you open to the idea of a "holy spirit", a down payment, a gift from God? From the heart, Ray |
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365 | Only for the early Church? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122802 | ||
Hi Walking Talking Bible, You wrote, "I invite every professing saint to ask God to fill them with the Holy Ghost and give them the mind (or heart) to have compassion for these souls out here..." I appreciate your bemoaning the fact that today's religion and intellectual theologists have put God in a box and suddenly the Holy Ghost is deemed powerless. We do indeed have to "preach the word" and "fight the good fight". We should be willing to do more than talk the (w)Word, but also do the (w)Word. But I would invite professing saints to ask God to fill them with the holy spirit. 1 Timothy 1:7, "For God has not given us a spirit of timidity, but of power and love and discipline." I look forward to studying 2 Cor 1:22 with you in the future. From the heart, Ray |
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366 | (h)oly (s)pirit / (H)oly (S)pirit...HUH? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122817 | ||
Hi following him, You'll have to be observant here. I do not print (h)oly or (H)oly as you did in your question here, but rather, by the parentheses I am suggesting that one has a choice of interpretation. It is either holy or Holy. [That is, (h)Holy]. Your choice is holy spirit or Holy Spirit. [That is, (h)Holy (s)Spirit]. The Greek definite articles offer a choice of translating One or one; of "that one" or "that One". You have a choice personally of following that one or that One. That is, of following (h)Him. Now, I don't care if one chooses to put pronouns in lower case; most of us started our studies on the King James version of the Bible. We are used to the lower case used there. However, even in the King James, if the Holy Ghost is spoken of, capital letters are used. Pronouns of Deity should be capitalized to my mind, and I study from the NKJ and the NASB. I only hope that if one is following him, that the person counts Him as Deity in his mind and spirit. The Greek and Hebrew are not languages that differentiate between upper and lower cases; the choice of lower case "spirit" and upper case "Spirit" is determined by context and grammar. It is a matter of interpretation rather than translation. For instance, Romans 8:15 in my NASB Study Bible reads that "you have received a spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, "Abba, Father." The copy has a marginal note of [Or, the Spirit]. So here is the choice for you: "you have received a (s)Spirit of adoption as sons..." What is your choice in interpreting the verse? From the heart, Ray |
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367 | A man of God? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 124068 | ||
Hi Aixen7z4, I just now happened on your good posting here. I would like to make some comments on your references, but I am afraid they will be only from my particular method of Bible study, i.e. capitalization of pronouns of Deity and "counting" those pronouns. 1) You mentioned that Judges 13 has a man of God who is actually an angel, and possibly the pre-incarnate Christ. I go with the pre-incarnate Christ interpretation and the NKJ. I especially look at Judges 13:8 and expect to find five pronouns of Deity for that verse. Judges 13:8, NASB, "Then Manoah entreated the Lord and said, "O Lord, please let the man of God whom Thou hast sent come to us again that *he may teach us what to do for the boy who is to be born." Judges 13:8, NKJ, "Then Manoah prayed to the Lord, and said, "O my Lord, please let the Man of God whom You sent come to us again and teach us what we shall do the the child who will be born." In this version the "(h)He" is not translated. I believe that it would be optional. But this verse is pivotal for my choice of the *Man of God and the Angel. 2) For 1 Kings 13 you have said that the man of God seems to be more than a prophet. However, 1 Kings 13:18 says that "I also am a prophet like you" which shows that the man of God and the old prophet are equal. However, we could discuss the difference in the NASB and NKJ for Deuteronomy 18:18. NKJ, "I will raise up for them a *Prophet like you from among their brethren,..." 3) 2 Timothy 2:21, 22 are of interest to me also in the things (persons, places, things, nouns, pronouns) that I have learned. 2 Timothy 2:21, "Therefore if anyone cleanses himself from the latter, he will be a vessel for honor,..." What is the "latter"? The latter is these [things] which lead to dishonor. NASB, 2 Timothy 2:21, "Therefore, if a man cleanses himself from these [things], he will be a vessel for honor, sanctified, useful to the Master, prepared for every good work. 22 Now flee from youthful lusts, and pursue righteousness, faith, love and peace, with those who call on the Lord from a pure heart." May we always be ready to be used by our Master in heaven. From the heart, Ray |
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368 | Spirit/spirit?Is Spirit given or spirit? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 124070 | ||
Hi Tim, You wrote that John 4:10 doesn't use 'gift'. What did you mean in saying that, for the word is in the Greek is it not? For John 3:34 I interpret that the word "spirit" is not a reference to the Holy Spirit but rather the spirit that was given without measure was indeed the words of God spoken by Jesus. And all these [things] have been given into the Son's hand. John 6:62,63 tells me that especially after Jesus ascended we should know Him as Spirit. The Spirit gives life. He gives the words that are life. John 6:63, "It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life." From the heart, Ray |
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369 | Scriptural Support? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 124072 | ||
Hi Tim Moran, Could we also consider Romans 1:4. There we are given the choice of Spirit of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord; or the marginal note of [Or, spirit of holiness] in the NASB. For Romans 1:5 do we choose the "through whom" of the NASB or the "through Him" of the NKJ? If I were to suggest "through *which" would it be an option for you? From the heart, Ray |
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370 | Scriptural Support? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 124082 | ||
Hi Tim Moran, Thank you for your help here. I have noticed a couple things tonight. 1) The King James copies that I have looked at, have both "Spirit of holiness" and "spirit of holiness" in the various copies. 2) The King James versions do not include the words "Jesus Christ our Lord". 3) The NKJ also does not have those words and yet translates verse 5 as "through Him". Does that mean that they are referring back to Son of God rather than the neuter "(s)Spirit? 4) With the ommission of "Jesus Christ our Lord" in mind, I would look for other interpretations being that I am, as you well know, a counter of pronouns of Deity. Here is a possible rendering for your consideration: Romans 1:1, "Paul, a bond-servant of Christ Jesus, called as an apostle, set apart for the gospel of (God), 2 which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the holy Scriptures, 3 concerning His Son, the *One who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh, 4 the *One who was declared to be the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the spirit of holiness. 5 Through (Him) we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles, for His name's sake, 6 among whom you also are the called of Jesus Christ;" The parentheses are mine for comparison. From the heart, Ray |
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371 | Is Jesus the Bread of life? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 125180 | ||
Hipcdarcan, Compare Genesis 4:19 and John 6:35 with me. John 6:35, "Jesus said to them, "I am the *Bread of life; he who comes to Me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst." Can you see and acknowlede that Jesus is the Bread of life? Jesus said that man can not live by bread alone. From the heart, Ray |
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372 | Is Jesus the Bread of life? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 125409 | ||
Hi Robindb723, Is He the Bread of Life or the Bread of life? We are to eat Him and it is a difficult statement for how can we eat His flesh? So we indeed must partake of His spiritual bread. No one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God. But we can receive the thoughts revealed by His spirit that we have received as gifts from God. He is the Bread for our spiritual lives. So His flesh of John 6:51 are the words of eternal life that He has given in John 6:68. From the heart, Ray |
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373 | Have they been chosen | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 140139 | ||
Hi CDBJ, You gave a good answer with appropriate Scriptures. I think that they were appropriate because they spoke of being called and chosen "according to (His) purpose". According to (His) glorious might we too are qualified for the inheritance of the saints in (l)Light. Colossians 1:12. All this in order that we might be presented before (Him) holy and blameless and beyond reproach. The parentheses are mine of course to show the comparisons that I see. 1) Your version of choice caught my eye. Which version did you use here? From the heart, Ray |
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374 | WAS THE ANGEL JESUS | Genesis | Ray | 28503 | ||
Hi, I agree with you all. This is a case where it is important to "test the spirits" in order to determine who is being spoken of, an angel or the Angel. | ||||||
375 | Genesis 1:26-27 | Genesis | Ray | 28504 | ||
Hi hollyh, I believe that Genesis 1:26 is good proof that the Man, Jesus Christ was in the Beginning with the Father. This is my read of Revelation 22:13. "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End." What do you think? Give us a little closer here. Ray |
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376 | WHY DID ISAAC DIG NEW WELLS. | Genesis | Ray | 51180 | ||
Hi JIMMY MACK, Welcome to the forum. This is called the Study Bible Forum and so I recommend to you the use of a study bible. They will, for instance, give you the literal meaning of words in their margins. Let me give you those meanings and then you can make any points that you may want to make. First of all Isaac dug again the wells that his father Abraham had dug and called them by their old names. Then they dug in the valley and found there a well of flowing water. Genesis 26:19. It is interesting to note that the study bibles tell us that the literal word for flowing [springing, KJ] water is "living". See John 4:13,14, "Jesus answered and said to her, "Everyone who drinks of this water shall thirst again; but whoever drinks of the water that (I) shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall become in him a well of water springing up to eternal life." John 4:10, "Jesus answered and said to her, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it [He] is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink', you would have asked (Him) and He would have given you living water." Anyway, the neighbors of Isaac said that the water was their's, here in Genesis. And they strove for it, they contended over it. And thus, the literal word for the well called "Esek" is i.e. contention. They dug another well and quarrelled over that also. The well named "Sitnah" means "i.e. enmity". He moved away and as you say did not defend his rights to the wells, until he dug one that was not quarrelled over. He named it "Rehoboth", i.e. broad, for he said, "At last the (Lord) has made room for us, and we shall be fruitful in the land." I think that the thing that we can get from the story of the wells is that the Lord was with him. Isaac was allowed to leave in peace after the disputes and left a well on his own also. Looking back on it Isaac could see that the people in the valley of Gerar and Abimelech were doing him nothing but good even though he could not see it at the time. When Isaac went up to the land of his father and dug another well at Beersheba, there he was completely blessed as that name signifies. Genesis 26:28, "And they [Abimelech and company] said, "We see plainly that the Lord has been with you; so we said, 'Let there now be an oath between us, even between you and us, and let us make a covenant with you, that you will do us no harm, just as we have not touched you and have done to you nothing but good, and have sent you away in peace. You are now the blessed of the (Lord)." So sometimes we have to just trust that the Lord knows best and accept things as they come and not "stick up for our rights" all of the time. We need to learn I would suppose, to pick the right battles to fight, and to accept some things until the battle needs to be fought. That's what I got from your question, and thank you for it. From the heart, Ray P.S. I don't want to pick a fight, but I hope that you will use your shift key and not "yell". Thanks. |
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377 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Genesis | Ray | 71875 | ||
Did Adam and Eve have a human nature when they were created? | ||||||
378 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Genesis | Ray | 71873 | ||
Did Adam and Eve have a human nature when they were created? | ||||||
379 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Genesis | Ray | 71886 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Adam and Eve were created and declared good. They were made in the image and likeness of God. We know that God is good. Genesis 5:2, "He created them male and female, and He blessed them and named them Man [Literally, Adam] in the day when they were created." We don't see the word "human" in the Scriptures until Leviticus 5:3, "Or if he touches human uncleanness, of whatever sort his uncleanness may be with which he becomes unclean, and it is hidden from him, and then he comes to know it, he will be guilty." Adam and Eve did not become guilty until they knew good and evil. They were created good, but as you say, they had now have fallen. The point I wish to make is that when Christ came He came as the second Adam [Man] not as the fallen man of the first Adam's condition. So my question continues to be, must we portray Christ as just a man or can we simply know Him as the perfect Man. Can we not be satisfied that He came in the likeness of men, flesh and bones, etc. etc. But He came in the likeness of the first created Adam [Man]. From the heart, Ray |
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380 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Genesis | Ray | 71898 | ||
Hi Emmaus, I perceive that you are one who does not need a lot of sleep. I hope you get a nap in if you need it.:) 1) Please remember that my viewpoints will reflect my interest in capitalization. So may I first of all point out that I did not say that Christ was a perfect "man" but rather I see Him as the perfect "Man". When one considers that He was fully God, then he/she must think of Him as the Man Jesus Christ. That is, the Son of God. When one considers that He is fully man, then he/she must realize that the witness of two men is true, for He came in the likeness of men. But He is still the Son of Man, the Son of God, in the form of God but in the likeness of men. 2) When you say that there was "human cleanness before the Fall" I must disagree and ask for your Scripture reference that speaks of "human" things before the verses in Leviticus. The nature of the Son of God is a spiritual one. Man (Adam and Eve) was made in His image and His likeness. It is true that he was also flesh as Genesis 2:23 says, "And the man said, 'This is now bone of my bones, And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.'" It is because man was also flesh that the Lord said, "My *spirit shall not strive with man forever, because he also is flesh; nevertheless his days shall be one hundred and twenty years." See Genesis 6:3. So you see, I believe that before the Fall they had more of a spiritual nature although they were flesh. After the Fall, we can regard them in the view of your Latin "humus" with its decay of plant and animal matter. 3) When I think of God and man, I have to think of Jesus as being the God/Man. [Not God/man, you see?] Genesis 1:26, "Then (God) said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness;..." Here I see the triune Man in whose likeness God made us. But there has to be a difference shown between the Man and the man that I am. This difference for me is shown in capitalization of pronouns of Deity. 4) Genesis 3:21, "And the Lord God made garments of skin for Adam and his wife, and clothed them. 22 Then the Lord (God) said, "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil;..." The man [Adam and Eve] had become like the Man, knowing good and evil. But they were not like the Lord God and they were not to live forever--they were from the ground and were going back to the ground. Genesis 3:23, "therefore the Lord God sent him out of the garden of Eden, to cultivate the ground from which he was taken." I hope that we will talk more later. From the heart, Ray |
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