Results 821 - 840 of 1309
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
821 | Accept Jesus? | Acts 24:3 | Radioman2 | 88284 | ||
A search in the King James Version of the Bible showed only ONE occurence of the word "accept" in the entire N.T. Ac 24:3 (KJV) We accept it always, and in all places, most noble Felix, with all thankfulness. |
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822 | Accept Jesus? | Acts 24:3 | Radioman2 | 88575 | ||
Should we not, as Bible-believing Christians, be using Biblical terminology to discuss and describe Biblical truth, even in everyday conversation? Note also that the term "accept Christ" is used not only in everyday conversation among laymen, but also from the pulpit, where qualified preachers are supposed to be rightly dividing the Word of Truth. It is important to impart Biblical truth using Biblical words. Since Christ Himself, as well as the men writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, used the words "believe" and "receive", who are we to substitute the word "accept"? Surely believe and receive are not obscure, obsolete, archaic Middle English words that are no longer used or understood today, are they? A search in the King James Version of the Bible will show only ONE occurence of the word "accept" in the entire N.T. Ac 24:3 (KJV) We accept it always, and in all places, most noble Felix, with all thankfulness. |
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823 | Accept Jesus? | Acts 24:3 | Radioman2 | 88617 | ||
"The idea is one not of mere recognition, but of ACCEPTANCE and welcome." Tim: You are absolutely correct: "many of the words translated as 'receive' can also be translated as 'accept'." I appreciate your honesty and the careful scholarship of your every posting. It is always a blessing to be instructed by you. Thank you for setting me straight by providing the information in your previous post. In this instance and throughout the Bible it is true "that there really is no 'one' word which conveys all the meanings of these [Greek and Hebrew] words." This is why I rely upon and recommend the Amplified Bible. Following is another example of 'receive' and 'accept' being synonymous. John 1:11 New English Translation He came to what was his own, but his own people did not receive him.[27] 27 Study Note. His own people did not receive him. There is a subtle irony here: when the lovgo" (logos) came into the world, he came to his own (taV i[dia, ta idia, literally "his own things") and his own people (oiJ i[dioi, Joi idioi), who should have known and received him, but they did not. This time John does not say that "his own" did not know him, but that they did not receive him (parevlabon, parelabon). The idea is one not of mere recognition, but of ACCEPTANCE and welcome. (Emphasis added.) New English Translation (http://www.netbible.com) Grace and peace, Radioman2 |
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824 | How were ancient "soundings" performed? | Acts 27:28 | Radioman2 | 82858 | ||
"threw a line with a weight on it" So they threw a line with a weight on it into the water. It sank 120 feet. They waited a little while and did the same thing again. This time the line sank 90 feet. Acts 27:28 GOD'S WORD Translation In English Bibles it says "sounding(s)" because since the 15th century "sounding" is the English word that means "1 a : measurement of depth especially with a sounding line b : the depth so ascertained c plural : a place or part of a body of water where a hand sounding line will reach bottom" (http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary) |
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825 | Holy (GHOST) Received but not Realized? | Romans | Radioman2 | 91915 | ||
You ask: Can one have received the Holy (GHOST) and not know? This is a good question, but before it can be answered we need to know: What do you mean when you say "RECEIVED the Holy Ghost (Spirit)?" By "received" do you mean "baptized by", "filled with", "indwelt by", all of the above, none of the above? Because the Bible itself makes a distinction between "baptized by the Holy Spirit" and "filled with the Holy Spirit", we too must make a distinction between the two terms. Baptized and filled do not both mean the same thing. Filled is not just another way of saying baptized. 1 Cor 12:13 NASB For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit. The Bible in 1 Cor 12:13 says: "By one Spirit we were all baptized." Notice that this verse, in contrast with Acts 2:4, DOES use both Spirit and baptized in one sentence. This is how we were initially placed into the body of Christ. It ocurred to each of us ONCE -- when we received Christ as Savior and were born again. Also note that in Acts 2:4, the text there does not say: "And they were all baptized with the Holy Spirit." It uses the word "filled". "And they were all FILLED (emphasis mine) with the Holy Spirit." Filled, not baptized. Not according to the plain text of the Scripture. So, each individual believer is baptized by the Holy Spirit (placed into the body of Christ) ONCE, when he is born again and first becomes a Christian. However, the filling with the Spirit is a repeated reality in the life of the believer. I.e., there is ONE BAPTISM, BUT MANY FILLINGS. The fullness of the Spirit affects all areas of life, not just speaking boldly. Also note the Bible teaches that ALL believers are indwelt by the Holy Spirit (Rom 8:9). So again, before your question can be answered we need to know: What do you mean when you say "RECEIVED the Holy Ghost (Spirit)?" Grace to you, Radioman2 |
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826 | Joann ... Why not use your gift ? | Romans | Radioman2 | 91965 | ||
Does the Holy Spirit pray *through* us? Whatever the answer may be, the Bible plainly says: "The Spirit Himself intercedes *for* us." (NASB, emphasis added) AMPLIFIED Romans 8:26 So too the [Holy] Spirit comes to our aid and bears us up in our weakness; for we do not know what prayer to offer nor how to offer it worthily as we ought, but the Spirit Himself goes to meet our supplication and pleads in our behalf with unspeakable yearnings and groanings too deep for utterance. |
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827 | josiebible, where does it say we can ask | Romans | Radioman2 | 92124 | ||
"Do all speak with tongues?" No, they do not. Notice in the following passage, it does not ask: Do all have the GIFT of tongues? What it asks is: "Do all SPEAK with tongues?" 1 Corinthians 12: 27 Now you are the body of Christ, and members individually. 28 And God has appointed these in the church: first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, administrations, varieties of tongues. 29 Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Are all workers of miracles? 30 Do all have gifts of healings? Do all speak with tongues? Do all interpret? 31 But earnestly desire the best gifts. And yet I show you a more excellent way. (New King James Version) The IMPLIED or expected answer to each of the following questions is "No." Are all apostles? (No.) Are all prophets? (No.) Are all teachers? (No.) Are all workers of miracles? (No.) Do all have gifts of healings? (No.) Do all speak with tongues? (No.) Do all interpret? (No.) |
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828 | pray to God or Jesus or same?? | Rom 1:8 | Radioman2 | 94053 | ||
Will God answer your prayer if you don't end with, "In Jesus' name, Amen?" Learn what praying in the name of Jesus really means. "I think Jehovah's Witnesses really miss the point by making the big fuss about God's real name, Jehovah. Even the word Jehovah is a conflated (combined) name using portions of two different Hebrew words. We're not even sure what the tetragrammaton really was and what it was pronounced like. After you translate it into other languages, it has a different sound anyway. "What is surprising, though, is that Christians have a very similar practice. We think we are doing something spiritual and end up doing something superstitious. In the process we don't really do the spiritual thing that we intended to accomplish. The "name of God" or "in the name of Jesus" means something different than repeating those words. "Read the New Testament. It says there... "Anything you ask in my name, that will I do." We have presumed that what that means is that we must add a phrase after prayer . . . in order to make it work . . . " "Just about every time we finish praying we tack this phrase on at the end, "In the name of Jesus. Amen." We do that because we were told to pray in the name of Jesus and God would answer. We expect that in doing so it seals the power of the prayer. I think that is superstitious because praying in the name of Jesus doesn't mean saying, "In the name of Jesus." (...) "One thing you will notice when you highlight every prayer, every supplication towards God that is uttered in the text of the New Testament is that you will never see a New Testament prayer that ends with the phrase "In Jesus' name. Amen," even though the same text teaches you to pray in Jesus' name. It doesn't take a rocket scientist to draw the conclusion that we are, first, to pray in the name of Jesus, and second, praying in the name of Jesus doesn't mean ending your prayer with the phrase "In the name of Jesus. Amen," because it is never done in the New Testament. "Ending prayers with that phrase might do nothing whatsoever to the efficacy of your prayer. I even submit that it might be hurting your prayer, depending on what you mean by the phrase. "What does it mean to pray in the name of someone if it doesn't mean saying, "In the name of..."?" To read this entire article, go to: In the Name of Jesus by Gregory Koukl at the following website: (www.str.org/free/commentaries/theology/nameofje.htm) 18508 |
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829 | pray to God or Jesus or same?? | Rom 1:8 | Radioman2 | 94054 | ||
'What does it mean to pray in the name of someone if it doesn't mean saying, "In the name of..."? Here's what it means. 'The name of someone, in the sense that the Bible authors used it, was what the person stood for, the substance of their character, or their authority . . . When we pray in the name of Jesus . . . what we are doing is acting in [his] authority, in [his] stead, according to [his] command, and consistent with [his] desires.' 'When we pray in the name of Jesus it might be better for us to drop the phrase "In the name of Jesus" altogether because generally we don't mean, "I am praying in the authority of Jesus Christ." You know what we probably mean when we say "In the name of Jesus. Amen" ? Practically speaking, it means the prayer is over. That is the Christian exit. Amen. Translated it means, the prayer is over, let's go do what we were doing, or let's eat. 'There is power in praying in the authority of Jesus Christ, by the authority He has given you, consistent with His character, His desire, and His will. It's like when we say, "Stop in the name of the law." The policeman is saying that because he is standing in the place of the law and speaking on behalf of it. To the degree that he speaks for the law, then he can enforce the law and he has authority. When he steps outside of the law, he has lost his authority even though he still says, "Stop in the name of the law." (...) 'If you are praying in a group and you don't want to leave people mystified as to what is happening, you could just simply say, "The prayer is over, let's eat," or, "We're done, let's go on." The important thing is not what you say with your mouth. Dispense with the empty words. Get rid of them. Instead, approach the throne of God based on the authority of Jesus Christ. If you are thinking that way and that is your attitude, it doesn't matter what you say at the end of the prayer. God will hear you according to His promise.' [This article has been edited to fit here within space limitations. To read the entire article, see In the Name of Jesus by Gregory Koukl (www.str.org/free/commentaries/theology/nameofje.htm)] |
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830 | Praying or Saying? | Rom 1:8 | Radioman2 | 94091 | ||
I have never said that we should not pray in the name of Jesus. What I said is: 'PRAYING in the name of Jesus doesn't mean SAYING, "In the name of Jesus." ' Radioman2 ____________________ See also "In the Name of Jesus" by Gregory Koukl at the following website: (www.str.org/free/commentaries/theology/nameofje.htm) |
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831 | Praying or Saying? | Rom 1:8 | Radioman2 | 94219 | ||
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832 | How does any Homosexual believe they are | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91458 | ||
Question: "IS IT POSSIBLE FOR A HOMOSEXUAL TO DO THE WILL OF GOD EVEN IF LIVING A HOMOSEXUAL LIFESTYLE MAKES THEM A SINNER?" Answer: First, we know that a sinner cannot do the will of God. Romans 8:6-8 (ESV) To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace. [7] For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot. [8] Those who are in the flesh cannot please God. Second, as long as a person continues to practice homosexual sin, then they are NOT doing the will of God. 1 John 3:8-10 (ESV) Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. [9] No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. [10] By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. As to your other questions, they are adequately answered in Scripture. Moreover, those Scriptures have been posted on this forum many, many times. (See the Search function.) In fact, the question to which you reply gives several such Scriptures, in both the OT and NT. They are: Lev. 18:22 ; 20:13 1 Corin. 6:9-10 Deut. 23:17-18. The teachings of Moses (the Law) condemn and prohibit homosexual sin. The Bible calls homosexual sin an abomination -- a pretty strong word. Moreover, the Law DEFINES homosexual activity as sin. Since sin is the transgression of the Law and Jesus came to fulfill (not abolish) the Law, then how could he condone the breaking of the very Law that he came to fulfill? Grace to you, Radioman2 |
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833 | How does any Homosexual believe they are | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91461 | ||
By this it is made clear who take their nature from God and are His children and who take their nature from the devil and are his children: no one who does not practice righteousness [who does not conform to God's will in purpose, thought, and action] is of God; neither is anyone who does not love his brother (his fellow believer in Christ). (AMPLIFIED 1 John 3:10) | ||||||
834 | How does any Homosexual believe they are | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91471 | ||
Randy: You write: "I'm saying that it is possible for a homosexual to be a Christian, to praise her/her creator, and to carry out God's will while being a homosexual." I think what is at issue here is: what do you mean when you say "being a homosexual?" If being a homosexual means merely to have homosexual desires without acting on those desires, that is one thing. But if being a homosexual means performing homosexual acts, then the answer is: No, it is not possible for a homosexual to carry out God's will. It is not my intent here to bash or attack. I merely wish to understand what you mean when you say "being a homosexual." Radioman2 |
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835 | How does any Homosexual believe they are | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91512 | ||
If this is how you reply to me, then I think you've completely missed the point. Your questions and challenges here are outside the scope of what I've written to you. |
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836 | What does "being a homosexual" mean? | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91515 | ||
What does being a homosexual mean? Megiddo: You write: "I'm saying that it is possible for a homosexual to be a Christian, to praise her/her creator, and to carry out God's will while being a homosexual." I think what is at issue here is: what do you mean when you say "being a homosexual?" If being a homosexual means merely to have homosexual desires without acting on those desires, that is one thing. But if being a homosexual means performing homosexual acts, then the answer is: No, it is not possible for a homosexual to carry out God's will. It is not my intent here to bash or attack. I merely wish to understand what you mean when you say "being a homosexual." Unless and until you give your definition of "being a homosexual", further discussion of the subject is meaningless. Radioman2 |
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837 | How does any Homosexual believe they are | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91530 | ||
"the mind of the flesh [which is sense and reason without the Holy Spirit]" (AMPLIFIED) "the mind of the flesh" (ASV); "human nature" (GNT); "the sinful nature" (NLT); "the corrupt nature" (GOD's WORD) CurtMan: Good question and good to hear from you. I would go first with the text of the Amplified Bible in defining the term "carnal mind." The carnal mind is "the mind of the flesh [which is sense and reason without the Holy Spirit]." The word "carnal" comes from the Latin "carn-, caro FLESH." Compare the English word "carnivorous" which means "subsisting or feeding on animal tissues", i.e. meat or flesh. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:6 Now the mind of the flesh [which is sense and reason without the Holy Spirit] is death [death that comprises all the miseries arising from sin, both here and hereafter]. But the mind of the [Holy] Spirit is life and [soul] peace [both now and forever]. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:7 [That is] because the mind of the flesh [with its carnal thoughts and purposes] is hostile to God, for it does not submit itself to God's Law; indeed it cannot. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:8 So then those who are living the life of the flesh [catering to the appetites and impulses of their carnal nature] cannot please or satisfy God, or be acceptable to Him. Consider also the following translations/definitions: The American Standard Version, highly regarded for its scholarship and accuracy, gives what is probably the most literal translation of the Greek phrase translated "carnal mind." In Romans 8:6 the ASV says "the mind of the flesh." NEW LIVING TRANSLATION Romans 8 6If your sinful nature controls your mind, there is death. But if the Holy Spirit controls your mind, there is life and peace. 7For the sinful nature is always hostile to God. It never did obey God's laws, and it never will. The NLT translation for "to be carnally minded" is "If your sinful nature controls your mind." The NLT translates "the carnal mind" as "the sinful nature." The GOD's WORD translation translates "the carnal mind" as "the corrupt nature." The Good News Translation translates "the carnal mind" as "human nature." I will go with these clear and accurate definitions of "the carnal mind." Grace to you, Radioman2 |
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838 | What does "being a homosexual" mean? | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91626 | ||
"For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot." You write: "I have a problem with the statement "it is not possible for a homosexual to carry out God's will". I did not mean that no homosexual could ever carry out God's will. What I meant was no [currently] active homosexual (one who habitually performs homosexual acts) is carrying out God's will. Habitual sin is not God's will. If and when a homosexual stops commiting homosexual sin, then it becomes *possible* for him to do the will of God. ------------------------------ First, we know that a sinner cannot do the will of God. Romans 8:6-8 (ESV) To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace. [7] For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot. [8] Those who are in the flesh cannot please God. Second, as long as a person continues to practice homosexual sin, then they are NOT doing the will of God. 1 John 3:8-10 (ESV) Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. [9] No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. [10] By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. The teachings of Moses (the Law) condemn and prohibit homosexual sin. The Bible calls homosexual sin an abomination -- a pretty strong word. Moreover, the Law DEFINES homosexual activity as sin. Since sin is the transgression of the Law and Jesus came to fulfill (not abolish) the Law, then how could he condone the breaking of the very Law that he came to fulfill? Grace to you, Radioman2 |
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839 | What does "being a homosexual" mean? | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91752 | ||
Unless and until you give your definition of "being a homosexual", further discussion of the subject is meaningless. ____________________ What does "being a homosexual" mean? Megiddo: You write: "I'm saying that it is possible for a homosexual to be a Christian, to praise her/her creator, and to carry out God's will while being a homosexual." I think what is at issue here is: what do you mean when you say "being a homosexual?" If being a homosexual means merely to have homosexual desires without acting on those desires, that is one thing. But if being a homosexual means performing homosexual acts, then the answer is: No, it is not possible for a homosexual to carry out God's will. It is not my intent here to bash or attack. I merely wish to understand what you mean when you say "being a homosexual." Unless and until you give your definition of "being a homosexual", further discussion of the subject is meaningless. Radioman2 |
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840 | What does "being a homosexual" mean? | Rom 1:19 | Radioman2 | 91774 | ||
ho·mo·sex·u·al 1 : of, relating to, or characterized by a tendency to direct SEXUAL DESIRE toward another of the same sex 2 : of, relating to, or involving SEXUAL INTERCOURSE between persons of the same sex (Emphasis added.) (http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary) |
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