Results 741 - 760 of 1309
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
741 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Radioman2 | 88067 | ||
Hank: Please come back to the Forum. Don't give up on it. Who knows? Maybe someday, using our free will, we shall elect to wake up and stop smelling the tulips -- or not. Or at least stop quarreling over them. In the meantime we can only hope that we won't fall from our good works and lose the salvation that, according to some, we can never have assurance of, since we can never know whether we've made it until we've held on and held out to the end. Radioman2 |
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742 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Radioman2 | 89065 | ||
Tim: You write: "Too often we make statements that are based upon assumptions, but present them as though they are Biblical statements." Amen! As it has been said on this forum 100 times, WE KNOW WHAT THE BIBLE MEANS BY WHAT IT SAYS. Your brother, Radioman2 |
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743 | Is God's love unconditional ? | John 3:16 | Radioman2 | 91613 | ||
God's love is not based on the merit of the recipient. Deut. 7:7-8 (ESV) It was not because you were more in number than any other people that the Lord set his love on you and chose you, for you were the fewest of all peoples, [8] but it is because the Lord loves you and is keeping the oath that he swore to your fathers, that the Lord has brought you out with a mighty hand and redeemed you from the house of slavery, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt. Romans 5:7-8 (ESV) For one will scarcely die for a righteous person—though perhaps for a good person one would dare even to die— [8] but God shows his love for us in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us. |
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744 | Is God's love unconditional ? | John 3:16 | Radioman2 | 91631 | ||
Michaelogical: I did not say that God's love is not based on anything. Nor did I once use the word condition or conditional in my Note. I merely said what I said, which is: "God's love is not based on the merit of the recipient." It seems to me that the REASON for the oath is God's love. Not the other way around. The result of God's love is the cross. This is not the same as saying the condition of God's love is the cross. Look at the order found in John 3:16. God's love precedes the giving of His only begotten son. Grace to you! Radioman2 |
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745 | What would Jesus have you do? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 102997 | ||
[khuck: Welcome to the Forum. I am delighted to have you on board. May God richly bless you. I agree with your post regarding baptism. Grace to you, Radioman2] * * * * * * * * * * * * * The mode of baptism - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - "Scripture and common sense indicate that the water is not all-important and that, therefore, other modes [i.e., modes other than immersion] may be used as substitutes in exceptional circumstances." - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - "There are three modes (or methods) of water baptism used in Christian churches today: immersion (in which the person is completely submerged), affusion (that is, pouring), and aspersion (sprinkling). Evangelical Christians are divided on the question of which mode or modes are proper forms of baptism. Some Christians (typically those who believe that only believers should be baptized) think that immersion is the only valid mode, while other Christians (usually those who recognize the validity of infant baptism) consider all three modes to be acceptable. (...) "Those who believe that all three modes are valid would point out that only in the most ritualistic view of baptism can the amount of water be considered important. The immersion-only view, they say, appears absurd: What if one hair fails to be immersed? What if a finger or a hand? Where does one draw the line? But the opposing argument can be made to appear absurd also: If a small amount of water is permissible, is one drop enough? How about no water at all (not a view to be laughed away, since the "Quakers" take this exact view)? Where does one draw the line at this end? Therefore, the better approach is to realize that it is the general form of the act and the intention of those involved that matter, not the precise amount of water used. The issue is: Shall we obey the command of Christ as He intended or shall we obey the command in a way that pleases us? (...) "What shall we conclude from these observations? "It seems clear to us that immersion is the biblical norm, but that it is not an inflexible norm. That is, Scripture and common sense indicate that the water is not all-important and that, therefore, other modes may be used as substitutes in exceptional circumstances. God accepts the believer on the basis of his faith in Christ and his desire to obey Him, not on the basis of how much water covered his body when he was baptized. The doctrine that immersion is the only valid mode of baptism and that only those so baptized should be admitted into the fellowship of the Church body would, therefore, appear to be a bit extreme and not based on Scripture. The Church should welcome into its fellowship all those whom Christ has accepted (Romans 15:7, I John 1:3)" (http://www.equip.org/search/). |
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746 | Under the Law but not under water? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103268 | ||
AO: You write: "Also, note that the thief on the cross did not die in the Christian age, but under the Law of Moses." My question is: Does this mean that under the Law there was no legal requirement to be baptized, but now that we are no longer under law there is such a legal requirement? If this were the case, then it would seem to be a contradiction. If we are no longer under Law, then why this new and additional legal requirement? --Radioman2 |
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747 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103327 | ||
AO: You write: "What Jesus taught in John 3:1-21 does not pertain to the Old Testament..." John 3:5 born of water and the Spirit. 'Jesus referred not to literal water here but to the need for "cleansing" (e.g., Ezek. 36:24-27). When water is used figuratively in the OT, it habitually refers to renewal or spiritual cleansing, especially when used in conjunction with "spirit" (Num. 19:17-19; Ps. 51:9,10; Is. 32:15; 44:3-5; 55:1-3; Jer. 2:13; Joel 2:28,29). Thus, Jesus made reference to the spiritual washing or purification of the soul, accomplished by the Holy Spirit through the Word of God at the moment of salvation (compare Eph. 5:26; Titus 3:5), required for belonging to His kingdom.' (MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997) --Radioman2 |
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748 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103338 | ||
Baptism never was part of Paul's gospel 'Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations . . . In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism.' ____________________ "...it is quite clear from such passages as Acts 15 and Romans 4 that no external act is necessary for salvation. Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone (Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Philippians 3:9, etc.). "If baptism were necessary for salvation, we would expect to find it stressed whenever the gospel is presented in Scripture. That is not the case, however. Peter mentioned baptism in his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). However, in his sermon from Solomon's portico in the Temple (Acts 3:12-26), Peter makes no reference to baptism, but links forgiveness of sin to repentance (3:19). If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3? "Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations. In 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Paul gives a concise summary of the gospel message he preached. There is no mention of baptism. In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism. That is difficult to understand if baptism is necessary for salvation. If baptism were part of the gospel itself, necessary for salvation, what good would it have done Paul to preach the gospel, but not baptize? No one would have been saved. Paul clearly understood baptism to be separate from the gospel, and hence in no way efficacious for salvation." (http://www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/baptism.htm) --Radioman2 |
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749 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103369 | ||
a false addition to faith when... "Repentance. This is a valid condition for salvation when understood as a synonym for faith. It is a false addition to faith when understood as a prerequisite, requiring the cleansing of the life in order to be saved" (p. 1950, Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press, 1978). ******************** [AO: 'Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations . . .' 'If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3?' Your quoting Acts 8:12 hardly answers the points made in my previous post, which follows:] Baptism never was part of Paul's gospel 'Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations . . . In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism.' ____________________ "...it is quite clear from such passages as Acts 15 and Romans 4 that no external act is necessary for salvation. Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone (Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Philippians 3:9, etc.). "If baptism were necessary for salvation, we would expect to find it stressed whenever the gospel is presented in Scripture. That is not the case, however. Peter mentioned baptism in his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). However, in his sermon from Solomon's portico in the Temple (Acts 3:12-26), Peter makes no reference to baptism, but links forgiveness of sin to repentance (3:19). If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3? "Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations. In 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Paul gives a concise summary of the gospel message he preached. There is no mention of baptism. In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism. That is difficult to understand if baptism is necessary for salvation. If baptism were part of the gospel itself, necessary for salvation, what good would it have done Paul to preach the gospel, but not baptize? No one would have been saved. Paul clearly understood baptism to be separate from the gospel, and hence in no way efficacious for salvation." (http://www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/baptism.htm) --Radioman2 |
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750 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103377 | ||
deejhermit writes: "Please stop taking verses out of the Bible and lifting them out of the Bible." Radioman2 replies: If you have a point, please tell us what it is. You need not resort to personal attacks as you did in the above quote. |
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751 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103409 | ||
deejhermit: I've overreacted to what you had posted earlier. I apologize for that. Grace and peace, Radioman2 |
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752 | whats the reference to our day? | John 4:48 | Radioman2 | 85582 | ||
And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead. Luke 16:31 | ||||||
753 | Can you fall from grace? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81618 | ||
No, no and no. No one who is begotten (born) of God can "fall from grace". After you are saved, you cannot become unsaved. After you are saved, you cannot go to hell instead of heaven. Eternal life, by definition, is not temporary. "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life." NASB John 5:24 AMPLIFIED John 5:24 I assure you, most solemnly I tell you, the person whose ears are open to My words [who listens to My message] and believes and trusts in and clings to and relies on Him Who sent Me has (possesses now) eternal life. And he does not come into judgment [does not incur sentence of judgment, will not come under condemnation], but he has already passed over out of death into life. AMPLIFIED John 10:27-29 The sheep that are My own hear and are listening to My voice; and I know them, and they follow Me. And I give them eternal life, and they shall never lose it or perish throughout the ages. [To all eternity they shall never by any means be destroyed.] And no one is able to snatch them out of My hand. My Father, Who has given them to Me, is greater and mightier than all [else]; and no one is able to snatch [them] out of the Father's hand. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:35 Who shall ever separate us from Christ's love? Shall suffering and affliction and tribulation? Or calamity and distress? Or persecution or hunger or destitution or peril or sword? AMPLIFIED Romans 8:38 For I am persuaded beyond doubt (am sure) that neither death nor life, nor angels nor principalities, nor things impending and threatening nor things to come, nor powers, AMPLIFIED Romans 8:39 Nor height nor depth, nor anything else in all creation will be able to separate us from the love of God which is in Christ Jesus our Lord. AMPLIFIED Philippians 1:6 And I am convinced and sure of this very thing, that He Who began a good work in you will continue until the day of Jesus Christ [right up to the time of His return], developing [that good work] and perfecting and bringing it to full completion in you. AMPLIFIED 1 Peter 1:4-5 [Born anew] into an inheritance which is beyond the reach of change and decay [imperishable], unsullied and unfading, reserved in heaven for you, Who are being guarded (garrisoned) by God's power through [your] faith [till you fully inherit that final] salvation that is ready to be revealed [for you] in the last time. |
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754 | Not begotten? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81622 | ||
They went out from us...none of them were of us 1 John 2:19 (NKJV) They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us; but they went out that they might be made manifest, that none of them were of us. 2:19 "They went out from us...none of them were of us. The first characteristic mentioned of antichrists, i.e., false teachers and deceivers (vv. 22-26), is that they depart from the faithful. They arise from within the church and depart from true fellowship and lead people out with them. "The verse also places emphasis on the doctrine of the perseverance of the saints. Those genuinely born again endure in faith and fellowship and the truth (1 Cor. 11:19; 2 Tim. 2:12). The ultimate test of true Christianity is endurance (Mark 13:13; Heb. 3:14) The departure of people from the truth and the church is their unmasking" (MacArthur Study Bible). |
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755 | Not begotten? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81624 | ||
[9] No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. [10] By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. 1 John 3:9-10 (ESV) - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1 John 3:6-10 (Amplified) 6 No one who abides in Him [who lives and remains in communion with and in obedience to Him—deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] commits (practices) sin. No one who [habitually] sins has either seen or known Him [recognized, perceived, or understood Him, or has had an experiential acquaintance with Him]. 7 Boys (lads), let no one deceive and lead you astray. He who practices righteousness [who is upright, conforming to the divine will in purpose, thought, and action, living a consistently conscientious life] is righteous, even as He is righteous. 8 [But] he who commits sin [who practices evildoing] is of the devil [takes his character from the evil one], for the devil has sinned (violated the divine law) from the beginning. The reason the Son of God was made manifest (visible) was to undo (destroy, loosen, and dissolve) the works the devil [has done]. 9 No one born (begotten) of God [deliberately, knowingly, and habitually] practices sin, for God’s nature abides in him [His principle of life, the divine sperm, remains permanently within him]; and he cannot practice sinning because he is born (begotten) of God. 10 By this it is made clear who take their nature from God and are His children and who take their nature from the devil and are his children: no one who does not practice righteousness [who does not conform to God’s will in purpose, thought, and action] is of God; neither is anyone who does not love his brother (his fellow believer in Christ). |
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756 | What did Jesus mean in John 5:24? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81625 | ||
"Our salvation is not verified by a past moment." A time of decision doesn't necessarily prove or disprove the existence of saving faith. Regarding John 5:24 you ask: "Is he teaching that a Christian should be able to look back to a time when they passed from death unto life?" 'A Time of Decision 'So often people say things like: "Well, I know I'm a Christian, because I remember when I signed the card," or "I remember when I prayed a prayer," or "I remember when I walked the aisle" or "went forward in church." A person may remember exactly when it happened and where they were when "it" happened, but that doesn't necessarily mean anything. Our salvation is not verified by a past moment. Many people have prayed prayers, gone forward in church services, signed cards, gone into prayer rooms, BEEN BAPTIZED, and joined churches without ever experiencing genuine saving faith.' (Emphasis added) To read more go to: (www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/genuinefaith.htm) |
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757 | Can you fall from grace? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81640 | ||
"Can we be unsealed?" The Bible nowhere even hints that this is possible. - - - - - - - - - - - - - 'THE SECURITY OF THE BELIEVER 'A. The Issue. Can a true believer ever lose his salvation by sinning, ceasing to believe, or in any other way? 'B. The Proof of Security. The doctrine of eternal security rests on a proper concept of what God actually does when He saves a soul. '1. He loves to the uttermost. '2. He purposes to keep in spite of everything. '3. He intends to present us faultless before Himself. '4. His Son ever lives to make intercession to keep us saved. '5. His Spirit has placed us into the Body of Christ. '6. His Spirit has sealed us until the day of redemption. '7. His Word guarantees that nothing (including ourselves) can separate us from Christ. 'In order to lose one's salvation all of these works of God would have to be undone, and THE BIBLE NOWHERE EVEN HINTS THAT THIS IS POSSIBLE. 'C. The Problem Passages. '1. Hebrews 6:4-6. If this teaches that one can lose his salvation, it also teaches that one can never be saved a second time. '2. John 15:6. Probably refers to the judgment seat of Christ. '3. James 2:14-26. Nonworking faith is not a faith that saves in the first place. '4. 2 Peter 2 and Jude are referring to false teachers, who in Jude's estimation were not true believers (Jude 19; compare Rom. 8:9). '5. Matthew 24:13. End of what? (The Great Tribulation.)' - - - - - - - - - - - - - (Scripture references for section B.) 1. John 13:1 2. John 10:28-30 3. Jude 24 4. Heb. 7:25; 1 John 2:1 5. 1 Cor. 12:13 6. Eph. 4:30 7. Rom. 8:28-39 (Charles Caldwell Ryrie, The Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press, 1976, 1978) (Emphasis added.) |
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758 | Can you fall from grace? | John 5:24 | Radioman2 | 81671 | ||
Genuine saving faith always perseveres (compare John 8:31; 15:5,6; Col 1:22,23; Heb 3:12-14; 4:11; 1 John 2:19). "Those genuinely born again endure in faith and fellowship and the truth (1 Cor. 11:19; 2 Tim. 2:12). The ultimate test of true Christianity is endurance (Mark 13:13; Heb. 3:14)." (MacArthur Study Bible). Col. 1:21-23 (ESV) And you, who once were alienated and hostile in mind, doing evil deeds, [22] he has now reconciled in his body of flesh by his death, in order to present you holy and blameless and above reproach before him, [23] if indeed you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel that you heard, which has been proclaimed in all creation under heaven, and of which I, Paul, became a minister. "1:23 *continue in the faith.* Those who have been reconciled will persevere in faith and obedience because, in addition to being declared righteous, they are actually made new creatures (2 Cor 5:17) with a new disposition that loves God, hates sin, desires obedience, and is energized by the indwelling Holy Spirit (compare John 8:30-32; 1 John 2:19). Rather than defect from the gospel they heard, true believers will remain solid on Christ who is the only foundation (1 Cor 3:11), and faithful by the enabling grace of God (Phil 1:6; 2:11-13)" (page 1834, MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997). |
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759 | More thoughts and questions on the boy | John 6:9 | Radioman2 | 98176 | ||
Hank: What if the fish were spurgeon? --Radioman2 :-) |
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760 | Divorce and the Pastor | John 6:37 | Radioman2 | 87604 | ||
Divorce and the Pastor 'Where does it say in God's Word that divorce disqualifies a man from God's service? We're not talking about infidelity here. We're not talking about adultery here. We are talking about two people whose marital difficulties have reached the point where, for one of them at least, staying married is no longer the option. 'I understand Paul's directions to Timothy were that a pastor must be the husband of one wife. But if [one] divorces, and if [he] does not remarry, how has he violated Paul's directives? 'Let's check the record. What does the Bible say about divorce? 'First, through Malachi, God said, "I hate divorce." That's pretty clear. 'Second, Jesus was confronted one day by the Pharisees about the question of divorce and remarriage. Please get that! The context of the passage, Matthew 19:3-9, the reason they continued to question Him, was not to learn whether or not a married couple could divorce. They already knew from God's declaration in Deuteronomy 24, the passage to which Jesus appealed, that they could. The Pharisees wanted to trap Jesus on the question of whether or not divorced couples could, according to Scripture, remarry. 'Jesus said, "God's original plan never included divorce, but because your hearts are hard, he permitted it on the grounds of adultery. If the marriage is dissolved because of adultery, the innocent party may remarry without jeopardy." 'Who initially and originally said a husband and wife should not get a divorce? God. Who initially and originally allowed a husband and wife to get a divorce? God. Is there a contradiction there? Yes, there is, and we need to understand what Jesus said. The contradiction is within us – you and me – not with Almighty God! 'Is divorce wrong? It is, unless Jesus lied. 'Does it disqualify an individual from ever entering Heaven. It does not, unless Jesus lied, because Jesus said, "Whoever comes to me in faith, I will never cast out.' 'But where does Scripture say that if a pastor becomes divorced, it disqualifies him from being a pastor? The disqualification comes from remarriage which contradicts the Bible's directives.' [Note: Neither this post nor this thread is about personalities. It's not about naming names. The purpose here is to discuss biblical principles. The day that readers start naming names will be the last day of this discussion.] ____________________ DIVORCE AND THE PASTOR by David Sisler (http://davidsisler.com/9-2.htm) |
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