Results 21 - 30 of 30
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Phillip Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Who wet Jesus feet with her tears? | Luke 7:44 | Phillip | 4036 | ||
A good case could be made as to Mary, the sister of Martha and Lazarus, being the woman in Luke who wet Jesus' feet with her tears but a stronger case could probably be made against it. There are enough similarities to the three accounts of Matthew, Mark and John to leave little doubt that Mary is the same woman spoken of in each who annoints Jesus (the woman is called Mary in John 12:3 and Martha and Lazarus are there also). I am inclined to say that the woman in Luke is unknown to us but I can't help part of me wanting to believe that Mary is the woman of all four Gospels. Jesus did say that "wherever this gospel is preached in the whole world, what this woman has done will also be spoken of in memory of her." That would lead me to think that each Gospel was to tell of this woman's sacrificial act. The portions of Luke that are also in the other Gospels include: 1. Jesus "reclined at the table" (v 36) see Mt 26:7, Mk 14:3 and Jn 12:2 2. the woman "brought an alabaster vial of perfume" (v 37) see Mt 26:7, Mk 14:3 and Jn 12:3 3. She wiped His feet "with the hair of her head" (v38) see Jn 12:3 4. She annointed His feet with perfume (v38) see Jn 12:3 5. They were at the house of "Simon" (v39-40) Simon the Pharisee in Luke, Simon the leper in Matt 26:6 and Mark 14:3 In His Name, Phil |
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22 | Who wet Jesus feet with her tears? | Luke 7:44 | Phillip | 4305 | ||
Prayon, I agree with you on the points you make about the differences between the Luke vs. Matt,Mk and Jn accounts. I also believe it is impossible to determine who the woman is. The best one can do is make an assumption based on the evidence that he considers to be the best possibility. Some believe that it was Mary Magdalene who is first introduced in Lk 8:2 inmmediately after the account in ch 7. She could have been cleansed of the demons by Jesus sometime before and then showed her appreciation and affection to Jesus at Simon's house. Jesus forgave her sin for loving much because she was forgiven much...seven demons worth. Mary of Bethany was probably showing her gratitude for the miricle of Lazarus being raized from the dead. Aware of what Mary Magdalene had done earlier, she may have chosen the same form of showing her love by annointing Christ's head (Mt,Mk) AND feet (Jn)...His whole body, symbolically preparing Jesus for burial. We are not told of a sinful past in either woman's life but Mary Magdalene would have been considered a "sinner" by the Pharisees because of her demon possession. The one main link to each Gospel is the vial of alabaster perfume, used to annoint Christ's head in Mt and Mk and His feet in Lk and Jn. Lk and Jn also say that she wiped His feet with her hair. God must have a good reason to reveal Mary of Bethany to us but not the identity of the woman in Luke. He has a different point to make in Luke and did not want the focus to be drawn away to the woman. May God be with you, Phil |
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23 | Scripture is clear if we are open, right | Acts 11:1 | Phillip | 4813 | ||
Ray, I think you may be a bit quick to assume from the scripture which Sharp quoted "that we must speak in tongues to prove that we have received the Holy Spirit". The focus here is upon HOW Peter and all the circumcised believers KNEW that Cornelius and his close friends and relatives (Acts 10:24) had received the Holy Spirit. Verses 45 and 46 clearly state how, [45 All the circumcised believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God.] NASU. God used signs and wonders to begin His church (Acts 2:43, 4:29-30,5:12, 6:8, 14:3, Rom 15:18-19 and Heb 2:4) first with the Jews Acts 2:1-4, and then with the Gentiles starting with Cornelius, (see Rom 1:16) . This was promised by Jesus in Mark 16:17, ["These signs will accompany those who have believed: in My name they will cast out demons, they will speak with new tongues;] NASU However, this was not to be the case for all believers as Paul relates in 1 Cor 12:30 [All do not have gifts of healings, do they? All do not speak with tongues, do they? All do not interpret, do they?] NASU. Furthermore, Perter stated in Acts 2:38, ["Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.] He did not include speaking in tongues OR that tongues that appear as fire must fall upon those receiving salvation even though that very thing had just happened to him and his fellow believers that very day! Some may contend that the gift of the Holy Spirit which Peter refers to means the sign of tongues but that seems to be disputed by Paul's statement above and the gift of the Holy Spirit is not limited to tongues. The term "gift of" for both phenomena seems to separate them as all other gifts are separated, and no other gift is expected to be immediately evident for salvation. Every believer receives the "gift of" the Holy Spirit to be sealed and to be enabled for ministry by receiving gifts of the Spirit, [1 Cor 12:4 Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit. and 1 Cor 12:8-10, 8 For to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, and to another the word of knowledge according to the same Spirit; 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, and to another gifts of healing by the one Spirit, 10 and to another the effecting of miracles, and to another prophecy, and to another the distinguishing of spirits, to another various kinds of tongues, and to another the interpretation of tongues.] NASU. So although God chose to show evidence of receiving the Holy Spirit in the early church by pouring out the gift of tongues upon salvation, He did not continue the sign to all believers. As for being baptised in the name of Jesus, Peter is clearly stating that requirement. Paul finds a group of followers in Acts 19 who were in need of this very thing, [Acts 19:1-6, 1 ... Paul passed through the upper country and came to Ephesus, and found some disciples. 2 He said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said to him, "No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit." 3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" And they said, "Into John's baptism." 4 Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in Him who was coming after him, that is, in Jesus." 5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking with tongues and prophesying.] NASU. These believers help to explain that water baptism does not save as they were baptized into John, [Matt 3:11 "As for me, I baptize you with water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.] NASU. John told the people to "believe in Him who was coming after him" which is what places us into the baptism of Jesus. It is by belief (trust) in Jesus that we are baptised into Jesus name, [Rom 10:9-10, 9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.] NASU. By the way, these believers also prophesied but no one claims that prophesy must be an evidence of salvation. If I have helped at all, to God be the Glory, Phillip |
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24 | Woman head covering valid for today? | 1 Cor 11:10 | Phillip | 4815 | ||
Dear Dave, I have just read your comments on head covering for women and though I have nothing to offer you in theological form, I do commend you as to your desire to obey the word of God. I am of the opinion that adhering to the word of God will be blessed by God. [Rom 14:22 The faith which you have, have as your own conviction before God. Happy is he who does not condemn himself in what he approves.] NASU Trying to adjust God's word to fit our mold is a perilous path. I encourage you to follow the Holy Spirit's leading, even though others think it strange. As Peter and John answered the Jewish religous leaders, [Acts 4:19 "Whether it is right in the sight of God to give heed to you rather than to God, you be the judge;] NASU. May the Lord Bless Your Faith, Phillip |
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25 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | Phillip | 4462 | ||
Jim, Jesus was not speaking of water baptism in Jn 3:5 (Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God). See the very next verse to see what He was intending for Nicodemus to understand. John 3:6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. When Christ said we must be born of water, He was referring to physical birth. We are from "dust of the ground" (Gen 2:7) which comes from water (2 Peter 3:5 For when they maintain this, it escapes their notice that by the word of God the heavens existed long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by water)and that most of a human body is made up of water. Jesus had first spoken of spiritual birth (Jn 3:3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God"). of which Nicodemus took to mean being born twice physically (Jn 3:4 Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?"). Then Jesus clarifies that you must be born physically and then spiritually to enter the kingdom of heaven (Jn 3:5-6). Praise God, Phillip |
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26 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | Phillip | 4636 | ||
That is what Nicodemus asks, (John 3:4 Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?") Jesus then explains that a person must be born again (NASB or "from above") spiritually. All people must be born of water in a physical birth which enters them into God's physical creation, then they must be born of the Spirit to enter into God's spiritual kingdom. Jesus is not instructing Nicodemus to be born again of water but to be born again in a new way, of the Spirit. I must say your question reminds me of some mental health practitioners that advise their patients to go back to the womb for some sort of re-birth experience. In a recent tragic example of this a young girl died from suffocation in a blanket while "going back to the womb", as she cried for help but was refused by the doctor and her parent. The only answer for man's ills (sin) is to be born from above by way of inviting the Holy Spirit into one's heart, (Rom 10:9-10, that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation). If a person is not born from above, then they are practicing a religion of their own design because it is not of the Spirit of God. We cannot be reborn physically but we must be reborn spiritually if we wish to be reconciled to God. Man was cut off from God spiritually after the fall but through acceptance of Christ's atoning work on the cross, man can be reunited spiritually with God forevermore. Praise be to God our Saviour, Phillip |
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27 | Holy Ghost Baptism subsequent to salvati | 1 Cor 12:13 | Phillip | 4474 | ||
I have read many good responses to your question and I am not sure that what I have to say will help but I feel compelled by the Holy Spirit to add the following comments. In Acts 2:38 we read (Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. NASU). Peter gave instructions to repent. John the Baptist came preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins (Lk 3:3) which was a water baptism. The people were repenting and then being baptized in water. It was effective for repentance but not salvation. John confessed in Mark 1:8 (I baptized you with water; but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit, NASU), He being Jesus and His baptism being spiritual. Jesus later said to two of His disciples in Mk 10:38-39, (38 Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?" 39 They said to Him, "We are able." And Jesus said to them, "The cup that I drink you shall drink; and you shall be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized. NASU). Referring back to Peter's instruction, he said "let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins," This is the spiritual baptism that Jesus was referring to in Mk 10:39 that we His disciples will share in with Him (Rom 6:3 Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? NASU). It is the baptism of the cross in which Christ paid our penalty for our sins which grants us forgiveness (1 Peter 2:24 He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; NASU). Peter continues, "you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" which was promised during Christ's ministry in John 7:38-39, (38 "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture said, "From his innermost being will flow rivers of living water.'" 39 But this He spoke of the Spirit, whom those who believed in Him were to receive; for the Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified. NASU). This is what John was referring to when he said "He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit". As to how this all pertains to your question, salvation requires repentance [turn from sin] and baptism into Jesus Christ [accept Christ's atoning work on the cross] and we will receive the Holy Spirit [baptism of indwelling]. The baptism of the Holy Spirit is an eternal work, (John 14:16-17 "I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever; 17 that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you. NASU). We receive water baptism after repentance as a physical symbol of our spiritual baptism into Christ in whom we believe [trust] which results in the immediate indwelling [baptism] of the Holy Spirit. Perhaps this was for my own benefit to clarify my thoughts but I hope you have been blessed by it also. In Jesus Name, Phillip |
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28 | What does 1 Tim 3:2 mean? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Phillip | 6914 | ||
Steve, In your answer I'm sure you meant to include the case of an unbelieving husband who divorces his believing wife. Let me refer you to another reason for divorce given by Jesus in Matt 5:32 [but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.] NASU. Jesus also states in Matt 19:9 ["And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."] NASU. Would you agree that a second reason is given by Jesus wherby divorce is permitted? In these verses Jesus allows the spouse who has been betrayed by adultry to be released from the marriage but He does not say they must leave. Sounds a lot like the relationship between God and Israel doesn't it? I am sorry that we have strayed from the original question but it is all connected as we discuss the subject. May the Lord Bless You, Phillip |
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29 | What does 1 Tim 3:2 mean? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Phillip | 7323 | ||
Steve, After reading your response, I agree with your conclusion concerning the word "unchastity". However, I am concerned about whether unchastity is a good translation of the greek word "porneia" because of the following Strongs definition. NT:4202 "porneia" (por-ni'-ah); from NT:4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry: KJV - fornication. (Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright (c) 1994, Biblesoft and International Bible Translators, Inc.) and the Thayers Greek Lexicon definition; NT:4202 "porneia, porneias, hee" fornication a. used properly, of illicit sexual intercourse Acts 15:20,29; 21:25 b. Used in accordance with a form of speech common in the O.T. and among the Jews which represents the close relationship existing between Jehovah and his people under the figure of a marriage (from Thayer's Greek Lexicon, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 2000 by Biblesoft) I do not know why the NASU uses the word unchastity because the same greek word is translated immorality in Matt 19:9. The KJV uses the word fornication (sexual intercourse between a man and a woman not married to each other; Webster's) every time it translates 4202 porneia in the NT. The NKJV uses sexual immorality in both verses and the NIV simplifies it to marital unfaithfulness. All this evidence points to more than just a lack of virginity at the time of the marriage. Your second point is based on what Moses said, not on what Jesus said in Matt 19:7-9 [7 They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to GIVE HER A CERTIFICATE OF DIVORCE AND SEND her AWAY?" 8 He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way. 9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."] NASU Moses permitted divorce in Deut 24:1 ["When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out from his house,] NASU This law from Moses was given because of the hardness of men's hearts and was interpreted to allow a man to divorce his wife for almost any reason. Jesus is nullifying this liberal view of divorce but for one exception, sexual immorality, which now brings about the opposite effect, an extremely limited reason for divorce. So backing up a verse actually supports the view that Jesus allows divorce for only one reason, the same reason that God divorced Himself from Israel in Jer 3:8 ["And I saw that for all the adulteries of faithless Israel, I had sent her away and given her a writ of divorce, yet her treacherous sister Judah did not fear; but she went and was a harlot also.] NASU Jesus is declaring marriage to be sacred and He offers the same reason for divorce as God used with Israel. May we always be faithful, Phillip |
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30 | Book of Life and Book of the Living same | Rev 13:8 | Phillip | 4316 | ||
You may also want to read and pray over these verses for understanding. Gen 32:32-33, Dan 12:1, Luke 10:20, Phil 4:3 and Rev 3:5 and 13:8. May God Bless, Phillip |
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