Results 21 - 40 of 97
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: JibbyJee Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | creationish, traducianism and human life | Bible general Archive 1 | JibbyJee | 91737 | ||
Dear Mel While I respect your quest to find answers about life from within the Bible at your Bible class, I must also warn you about the futility of posing questions here in search of definitive answers. You will receive such a diverse range of replies (Mormon's, JW's, Arminians, Calvinists, and on and on and on) that I'm afraid you will only be defeating the purpose. This is a Bible Study Forum. If you want definitive answers, I humbly suggest that you discuss each issue in light of Scripture first and foremost. PS One of my favorite Bible teachers that is the most comprehensive in his knowledge of topics is RC Sproul. He is a wonderful author and teacher. He would be a good resource for you to tap into. In Christ, JIBBS |
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22 | John 1:1---"a god"? !?!? | NT general Archive 1 | JibbyJee | 87687 | ||
Truth"finder": John 1:1 "a god"???? Could you please expain this nonsensical NWT interpretation?? Thanks, Jibbs |
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23 | John 1:1---"a god"? !?!? | NT general Archive 1 | JibbyJee | 87754 | ||
I urge you to get out of the Watchtower while you still can! Tell me, why is it that you folks always do your work while crawling around in the dark? Why don't you just come out and tell everyone you're a JW? Why all the secrecy? Anyway, back to your post. I'm below the amateur level of Greek translation ability so I will defer to a real Greek Scholar. (Your list of 'scholars' is hysterical!! JOHANNES GREBER?!?!? LOL) Here's what Dr. James White of Alpha and Omega Ministries (www.aomin.org for the complete essay) has to say about the JW/Arian translation of John 1:1--- The third clause of this verse has occasioned great debate and controversy, mainly due to the fact that the Greek word for God, theos, does not have the definite article ("the") before it. Some pseudo-Christian or Arian groups have said that this means that the Word was a "god" or a god-like being like an angel (Jehovah's Witnesses). But is this the case? Actually, the answer to the whole question seems fairly obvious, even to a first-year Greek student. The third clause of 1.1 is a copulative sentence - that is, it follows the form "The (noun) is (predicate nominative)". In Greek, one distinguishes the subject of a copulative sentence by which noun has an article in front of it. For example, in 1 John 4:8 we have the last clause reading "God is love." Now, in Greek this is ho theos agape estin. There are two nominative nouns in this sentence - God (theos) and love (agape). However, the first noun, God, has the article ho before it. This indicates that "God" is the subject of the sentence, and love is the predicate nominative. It would be wrong, then, to translate 1 John 4:8 as "Love is God." The only way to make the two nouns interchangeable is to either put the article with both nouns, or to not put the article there at all. As long as one has the article and the other does not, one is definitely the subject and the other the predicate. Hence, 1 John 4:8 does not teach that all love is God, nor that God and love are interchangeable things. Rather, the term "love" tells us something about God - it functions almost as an adjective, describing the noun (God) that it modifies. We have the same situation in 1.1c. The Greek reads, kai theos en ho logos. Notice that the term Logos has the article ho while the term theos does not. This tells us that the subject of the clause is the Logos. Hence, we could not translate the phrase "and God was the Word" for that would make the wrong term the subject of the clause. Hence, the term "God" is the predicate nominative, and it functions just as "love" did in 1 John 4:8 - it tells us something about the Logos - and that is, that the nature of the Logos is the nature of God, just as the nature of God in 1 John 4:8 was that of love. Now, John does emphasize the term "God" by placing it first in the clause - this is not just a "divine nature" as in something like the angels have - rather, it is truly the nature of Deity that is in view here (hence my translation as "Deity"). Dr. Kenneth Wuest, long time professor of Greek at Moody Bible Institute rendered the phrase, "And the Word was as to His essence absolute Deity." Before summing up the verse, then, let the reader note that when groups such as Jehovah's Witnesses quote from Dr. Philip Harner's article on the nature of anarthrous (without the article) predicate nominatives, they don't understand what they are talking about. Harner accurately pointed out that the anarthrous predicate nominative functions as a descriptive term rather than a specific or definite term. Problem is, the Jehovah's Witnesses make "God" in John 1.1 just as definite as the translations they attack! Rendering it "a god" misses the whole point - the word "God" is functioning to describe the Logos - translating it as "a god" means a definite god is in mind, rather than following the actual sense of Harner's article and making the term describe the being of the Logos. The point Harner is making is that it is not the definite "God" that is in view, far less the JW translation of "a god" (both are definite) but rather the nature of the Logos that is important. Hence, 1.1 tells us some immensely important things. First, we see that the Logos is eternal, uncreated. Secondly, we see that there are two Divine Persons in view in John's mind - the Father and the Logos. Thirdly, there is eternal communication and relationship between the Father and the Logos. Finally, we see that the Logos shares the nature of God. These items will be important for a proper understanding of many of the statements made by our Lord in this book. It seems to me that John felt it was vitally important that we understand the majesty of the Person of Jesus Christ right from the start. We cab see these concepts played out through the rest of the Gospel of John. What do you think TF? JibbyJee |
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24 | John 1:1---"a god"? !?!? | NT general Archive 1 | JibbyJee | 87793 | ||
Howdy TF Okay, well if you aren't going to admit to being a JW then at least purge your deceived mind of all the doctrinal filth you have been brainwashed by. It's not a joke. Hell is just around the corner. Don't wait until it's too late. 7000 errors, huh? Tell you what... list 10 for me and show me their "utmost importance"! And here's one last thought for you to chew on: Joh 10:29 My Father, who hath given them unto me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand. Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one. Joh 10:31 The Jews took up stones again to stone him. Why did the Jews want to kill Jesus?? In Christ, JibbyJee |
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25 | John 1:1---"a god"? !?!? | NT general Archive 1 | JibbyJee | 87795 | ||
Greetings Radioman! Thanks for the info, brother! For the most part I'm well aware of JW literature and teachings. As Solomon said "there's nothing new under the sun. (Eccl. 1:9)" JW is nothing more than Arianism with a printing press and a crystal ball. In Christ, JibbyJee |
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26 | Boasting in Man Is Doubly Excluded | Is 2:11 | JibbyJee | 88601 | ||
Dear Joe: That's a great article. Piper's a magnificent teacher. I have a question for you, although it may be a loaded one considering our shared perspective. Do you think the person who ultimately rests upon his own choice of God, rather than God's choice of him, as the determinate factor in salvation, is guilty of boasting in man? I mean, when a person says "God cannot save me unless my free will chooses Him", isn't that dangerously close to toeing the blasphemy line-in-the-sand? In Christ, Jibbs |
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27 | Boasting in Man Is Doubly Excluded | Is 2:11 | JibbyJee | 88623 | ||
Dear Tim: LoL!! I know I may be a bit dense at times, but c'mon brother, you only need to say it once!!! Gimme a break! No, I'm being silly. It's happened to me before, too. I've heard the "gift" analogy many, many times. But in that construct, please answer this objection honestly: You wrote:"Those who believe that Christ died for all and draws all, do not believe that our choice of God is the determinate factor in salvation. The determinate factor is God's timeless decision to die on the cross for the sins of the world." Please be patient with me. I don't understand this at all. To me it's almost a non-statement. How does Jesus dying on the cross for the "WORLD" become the determining factor in the salvation of INDIVIDUALS?? If Jesus' substitutionary payment for our sins on the cross is the determining factor for our salvation as you say it is (I agree so far), not only for us, but also for every other individual on earth, then why aren't ALL PEOPLE SAVED? (Hint; Only the elect will be saved. Matt. 24:31) The whole gift thing (accept/reject) is not found in the Bible. It is a gift ONLY to the elect (Eph. 1:4-14). We were all at one time DEAD in sin. Dead people don't accept spiritual gifts, heck, they can't even understand them (1 Cor. 2:14). But Christ made us alive (Rom. 8:5, 47; Titus 3:5)(that's right, regeneration precedes faith!!) so that we could be saved. Either I'm missing the point of your statement, or you are missing the point of mine, or one of us is not being completely honest with the issue. It's right in line with this: If Jesus paid for the EVERY sin of EVERY man (including unbelief!) then on what basis is ANYONE judged? What sin could be held against them? In Christ, Jibbs PS...Did you get everything moved? |
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28 | Help with Hosea???? | Hos 13:14 | JibbyJee | 88226 | ||
Greetings Slide! While I cannot give you a direct answer, I would love to point you in the direction of a great apologetic website for use with atheists. Here's the link: http://www.tektonics.org/ You might find something there if you dig around long enough. And certainly there is a goldmine of other stuff to use with atheists. My guess is the Hosea passage is just the tip of the iceberg with that lady. So take out the icepick and chip away, my friend. It can be done! Brothers in Christ, JibbyJee |
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29 | One example of loosing salvation NT | Luke 8:13 | JibbyJee | 88943 | ||
Greetings New Creature! I hope you don't mind if I jump in the conversation mid-way. You've said repeatedly that you don't see any "real Scriptural support" of the OSAS doctrine, but you were able to see it, you would be. Well, I would hope so. I also hope you are sincere in your desire to understand the OSAS perspective and even to embrace it in all it's glorious splendor. The doctrine itself is derived from the Glory of Christ. You wrote:"" I agree, God is the author of our salvation. He authored and initiated salvation not us. But what has that got to do with the topic of whether or not salvation can be forfeited or not? Is there not any more solid support from the Bible than what you have provided so far? Give me something solid."" You agree that God AUTHORED our salvation. Good for you! Many "Christians" would even debate that, surprisingly! But let's take a look at the verse itself to see what else it says: Heb 12:2 looking unto Jesus the author AND PERFECTOR of our faith, who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising shame, and hath sat down at the right hand of the throne of God. ,,,,AND PERFECTOR. Hmm... Would does that mean?? In Christ, JIBBS |
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30 | One example of loosing salvation NT | Luke 8:13 | JibbyJee | 88946 | ||
Dear Andrew: It breaks my heart to hear of another brother in Christ going through trials and uncertainty about God, who is the very essence of Reality. My friend, I plead with you to trust GOD and GOD alone, and not the puffed up "wisdom" of men like that God-hating website. I urge you to read and meditate on Jesus' parable about the wheat and the tares and how there will be be unbelievers who hypocritically masquerade as the real deal. These same parasites that infest the Visible Church invent heresies in an attempt to subvert GOD and His elect. So, yes, there will be division in the Visible Church, but not amongst TRUE Christians. If you could elaborate on the nature of what it is that you are doubting, we will be in prayer for you and perhaps God will lead someone to give you a comforting answer. Also, there are many "intellectuals" both in and out of the Church. For someone to say they are leaving the church because they are "too intellectual" is not only the height of arrogance, but ironically, is also the epitome of stupidity. 1Co 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not in wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made void. 1Co 1:18 For the word of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us who are saved it is the power of God. 1Co 1:19 For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, And the discernment of the discerning will I bring to nought. 1Co 1:20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of the world? 1Co 1:21 For seeing that in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom knew not God, it was God's good pleasure through the foolishness of the preaching to save them that believe. Pro 1:7 The fear of the LORD is the beginning of knowledge; But the foolish despise wisdom and instruction. I hope and pray that you will find peace and comfort in the LORD GOD. Sincerely, JIBBS |
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31 | One example of loosing salvation NT | Luke 8:13 | JibbyJee | 89023 | ||
Dear NC: My friend, thanks for the reply. Here's something I've recently posted, and I hope to hear your take on it. It's concerning the Apostle Paul's belief that he (while still very much in the flesh) KNEW he was going to heaven. His KNOWLEDGE of this was even ALLOWED by God to be placed in SCRIPTURE and EXPLICITLY at that!! Please explain this: 2 Timothy 4:17 But the Lord stood with me and strengthened me, so that through me the proclamation might be fully accomplished, and that all the Gentiles might hear; and I was rescued out of the lion's mouth. 2 Timothy 4:18 The Lord will rescue me from every evil deed, and will bring me safely to His heavenly kingdom; to Him be the glory forever and ever. Amen. How do you explain this? Let me tell you, what God have revealed to me about Himself and the Grace he has bestowed upon me GUARANTEES that I will be saved and I know it more than I know anything else. Consider this as well and then tell me there is no "Biblcal proof" of eternal security based on these two passages and I will not say another word to you. 2 Corinthians 5:4 For indeed while we are in this tent, we groan, being burdened, because we do not want to be unclothed but to be clothed, so that what is mortal will be swallowed up by life. 2 Corinthians 5:5 Now He who prepared us for this very purpose is God, who gave to us the Spirit as a pledge. Some versions read "deposit" instead of "pledge", but I'm sure you get the point. The Spirit GUARANTEES salvation-which is the PURPOSE of God! Praise Him! In Christ, JibbyJee |
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32 | One example of loosing salvation NT | Luke 8:13 | JibbyJee | 89081 | ||
Hello NC! Well, I think you missed the point. How much CLEARER or EXPLICIT can Paul's KNOWLEDGE of the CERTAINTY of his salvation get than 2 Tim 4:18??? Let me suggest to you that you that no verse is an island unto itself. Proper hermaneutics are designed to allow God's word to say what it says and not what we want it to say. One of the rules is to always interpret the implicit (like John 15!!) with the explicit (2 Tim 4:18). Yet you refuse to consider that there ARE other viable interpretations to John 15 in light of ALL of Scripture. The Scripture is literally JAMPACKED with verses that support Perseverance of the Saints. So at best you are not being honest with the text, believing an apparent contradiction without any offer of resolution, resting solely on the interpretation of one verse and it's tradition of man. I hate contradictions. Contradictions are the antitheses of truth. If you really believe the Bible is true then reconcile the explicit teachings of 2 Tim 4:18 with John 15:6, for starters. Eagerly awaiting your response.... In Christ, Jibbs |
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33 | One example of loosing salvation NT | Luke 8:13 | JibbyJee | 89149 | ||
Greetings NC! How else would we know we are saved if there weren't teachers like John or Paul to include warnings to the church? Are such warnings the prescription for salvation? No. The warnings describe the actions of those who are TRULY born again by the spirit of God, and being born-again and God's workmanship (Eph. 2:10) they will not fail to obey. What you advocate is "Keep up with the Checklist--and be saved", effectively putting the cart before the horse. If we are saved, THEN the checklist will follow. Works follow salvation. The only ones who will obey are those who have been justified and are being sanctified. I find your usage of Hebrews 6:4-6 to be most curious. Have you ever fallen away? In Christ, Jibbs |
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34 | Heaven or Hell? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87137 | ||
Hi akeffer! I would have to agree with Joseph3's reply to your question. He did a good job providing scriptural evidence in support of his conclusions. One thought I would add to the equation is this: If we assume that all people who never hear the gospel automatically get saved by default without ever placing their faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, then we also conclude that we are all morally obligated to quit sharing the Gospel with people. If anyone can get saved apart from Christ, then the worst thing that could happen to them would be to hear the Gospel and be forced to choose. Only then would their eternal state ever be in jeopardy. I hope you see my point and that scripture does indeed hold true as Jesus Himself told us in the entirety of John 10. Also these verses: Joh 15:5 I am the vine, ye are the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same beareth much fruit: for apart from me ye can do nothing. Act 3:22 Moses indeed said, A prophet shall the Lord God raise up unto you from among your brethren, like unto me. To him shall ye hearken in all things whatsoever he shall speak unto you. Act 3:23 And it shall be, that every soul that shall not hearken to that prophet, shall be utterly destroyed from among the people. Act 3:24 Yea and all the prophets from Samuel and them that followed after, as many as have spoken, they also told of these days. Alive in Jesus, JibbyJee |
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35 | God--the "loving Father" of whom? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87138 | ||
Hi Justme! After reading your post and thinking a bit about your assertion that God is our "loving Father" (which I agree with you), I am curious as to whether or not you believe all people are God's children--especially in light of the words of Jesus in John 8:44. He obviously made a distinction as to who these Jews had for a father. So at what point can you say that God is our "loving Father" without disregarding Jesus' own distinction? Alive in Jesus, JibbyJee |
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36 | God--the "loving Father" of whom? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87184 | ||
I agree with you. There is no way for our finite minds to know who the elect of God are. I guess this is one of those questions that clearly draws the dividing line in the sand between Arminians and Calvinists. It is not as much an issue of the nature of election or predestination as much as it is an issue of Biblical sequence and chronology. I believe some things have to happen before others can occur. For example, you proposed the hypethetical that asked whether or not we are born saved and then lose that status by our own actions. I don't believe anyone is born saved because that would mean that people are in Christ at birth without being spiritually born-again. To be saved one must be born again (John 3:3), which is a gift of God (Eph. 2:8-9) that does not come from the will or desire of man but purely by the will of God (Romans 9:16). To be born saved would mean you would have to be redeemed at birth (Gal. 3:13), given to the Son by the Father (John 6:37) never to be lost by Him (John 6:39-40; John 10:28-29; 1 John 5:13) thus being guaranteed of eternal life. From this, you can see that if anyone is born saved, then we should all be universalists because no one can be saved and end up in Hell. However, I think we are all born deserving of eternal punishment (Ps. 58:3; Gen. 6:5; Rom. 3:10-11). Therefore, as you and I both believe, for God to save children is not a matter of Him being just and giving them what they deserve, but rather that He has mercy upon them despite their sinful condition. Being saved for an adult is no different. We aren't saved simply because we choose to be saved. We choose to be saved because he has mercy on us and delivers us from the bondage of sin upon our entire being. That's how I see it anyway. Looking forward to hearing back from you! Alive in Jesus, JibbyJee |
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37 | Am I once and forever saved? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87193 | ||
Yes, of course. IF you have truly been saved and regenerated by the Holy Spirit, that is. Many people give God lip service by claiming to be saved when in fact God has never saved them. It is these He speaks of in Matthew 7:22-23 and 1 John 2:19. If you have truly been saved your life will show evidence of producing fruit(John 15:3) which is a product of being filled with the Holy Spirit for the purpose of producing fruitful works unto the Glory of God (Gal. 5:22-23). Without these works and evidence of fruit, there is no real faith (James 2). Other verses declaring God's majestic faithfulness to us who are His are John 6:35-45, 1 John 5:13, Romans 8:1. And countless others. Have a good day. :) Alive in Jesus, JibbyJee |
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38 | God--the "loving Father" of whom? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87201 | ||
justme Thanks for responding! You're quick! LoL The paedobaptism issue is one that I am not very familiar with. I am not from the Lutheran/Presbyterian tradition so I can't say I have much experience with the reasons for infant baptism other than it's considered a covenant with God. It's easy for me to associate the practice with the Roman Catholic Church, thereby getting goosebumps and stomach cramps, but that isn't really fair. I can think of several godly men that I look up to a lot (RC Sproul for example) who practice infant baptisms because of theological reasons (Covenant Theology). But like I said, I'm mostly ignorant of the issue and will likely remain a "immersion" Baptism guy. As far as the age of accountability, I don't worry about that too much because I think it's something between God and individuals, like you said. So it's not something that can be dogmatically designated (like Mormons do). I believe God justifies and in so doing has mercy and compassion on whom He wills (Rom. 9:18). I trust that God always does what is right. See you later! Alive in Jesus, JibbyJee |
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39 | God--the "loving Father" of whom? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87206 | ||
Justme I just read your profile and wanted to let you know that I'll be praying for your healing from the cancer. How's it all going? My mother-in-law has been battling thyroid/lymph node cancer for 5 years. She is such a trooper. She's a godly woman who God is using to encourage and witness to so many people. I can't even begin to tell you the impact her response to the ordeal has had on me. So keep your chin up and your eyes on the Glory of Christ (as I'm sure you are!) I'd love to hear about the details if you ever feel the need to chat with a twenty-something kid! :) Alive in Christ, JibbyJee |
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40 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 87551 | ||
Hello Hank! There is not real evidence in Scripture to suggest that Jesus died to save everyone. [See John 6:35-45;65, 1 John 2:19; John 17:9; John 8:41-45] The WHOEVER in John 3:16 is literally "all the believing ones". It's describing the truth not giving a prescription. The eisegetical interpretation would be to read into the text the assumption that the atonement makes salvation a possibility for everyone on earth, even the dead, to be saved. By implying the word WHOEVER means an open invitation is to render the Blood of Christ powerless and ineffective to save anyone, because it's potency is contingent upon the exercise of "free will". I can read the exact same verse and let it say what it says and nothing more--All who believe in Jesus will be saved. There is nothing there that suggests he did/didn't die for all men. But in light of all of Scripture, particularly John 6:35-45, it becomes clear that He died TO SAVE and not to FAIL TO SAVE by losing some. In Christ, JibbyJee |
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