Results 41 - 60 of 90
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Emmy Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | Where does it say two were in the field | Matt 24:40 | Emmy | 117807 | ||
Hi: It does not take many to gather for Christ to show up too. We have a study group of about 12. This seems really good for getting together and seriously studying scriptures. A group this size leaves everyone a chance to contribute to the discussions. Even two is enough for a group. CHrist will join two or three as well as more. Numbers are not that important, but rather what is in the hearts of those present. Wish more would comment on content of what we post. My experience so far is mostly put down for being suspect of being JW which we are not and which we do not agree with. The comments are mostly left there, rather than posting a good logical presentation to the points made. Scripture for the above comments on numbers in a group. Matt 18:20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, there I am in their midst." This says to us it does not matter how small the groups are, but that they keep in touch to encourage one another. The passage says merely to keep in touch with like minded people, not necessarily to join a larger group Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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42 | Where does it say two were in the field | Matt 24:40 | Emmy | 117857 | ||
Hi: Thanks for your response. My comment on responses was posted in hopes that some would respond in a more helpful way. I am not offended no matter what is posted, unless I were to post something offensive. I would cease posting before that happens, as that is of use to no one. The comment about posting was also not directed at you, but is generally the case. The fact that you did not comment on something you say you do not understand very well is commendable. To put out postings that are wrong is not the best thing one could do. Sincerely HEnry and Emmy |
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43 | Where does it say two were in the field | Matt 24:40 | Emmy | 117908 | ||
Hi : I have stated on several occasions that I do not agree with JW Watchtower, including deity of Christ which I understand they do not believe. I would much rather see answers to my postings rather than go this JW situation. The thing is I have made one quote from NWT which to me says exactly the same as any other translation. On the point in question NWT used abandoned, where other translations use left. These words both mean the same in the context as I read it. SIncerely Emmy and Henry |
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44 | Where does it say two were in the field | Matt 24:40 | Emmy | 117915 | ||
Hi Brad: No offense taken. Wish someone would respond to my posting on "The question of logic and timing". Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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45 | What is meant by "last day" in John 6:44 | John 6:44 | Emmy | 115322 | ||
John 6: 44"No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and I will raise him up at the "last day." Thoughts about John 6:44 "Last day" is singular in all translations of scripture I have. It seems to refer to Jesus resurrecting people. There are many days after the resurrection, so it seems not to mean the last day with never another day to come after it. I assume this speaks of the 1st resurrection, since He is resurrecting people the Father has drawn to Him (Jesus) Question: What is it about this day of resurrection that it is called the last day ? This is the last day of WHAT ??? What ceases in this day that will never occur again ? |
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46 | Who does the Father draw to Christ? | John 6:44 | Emmy | 115364 | ||
Christ died once for all it says in scriptures. This means all have the opportunity to be saved by Christ's sacrifice. Not all take advantage of the offer, andreject it for one reason or another. God the Father knows who are searching HIm out. He draws these to Christ, and Christ in turn teaches those drawn to Him about the Father. Not only does he give them information on understanding the Father, but His sacrifice actually cleanses them from sin so that they are redeemed as sons to the Father. |
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47 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 118943 | ||
Hi: Romans1:9 Means that people from the beginning of time of them being on earth, right to today, God has a hand in their consciousness, and gives all people evidence that He is God. If people ignore this, they have no excuse that will hold up at judgement. This was true for gentiles who did not have the OT laws, and is still true for people today after Christ, whose offer of salvation is open to ALL. It says HE died once for ALL, so there is no exception. Strange as it seems at first, just as in OT times Gentiles did not have the law, but are going to be held accountable, so today in NT times, those that do not hear the gospel, still have within them knowledge of God. If they follow through with what God has put in their consciousness, and draw close to Him, Christ will save them as He has promissed that HE died for ALL. If one thinks this is not possible, namely to be saved by Christ without having heard the gospel, one should be able to explain the following: Does it say in scripture that one HAS to hear the gospel in order to be saved by Christ? How did all American Natives get to hear the gospel before America was discovered by Europeans? If they did not hear the gospel, and it is necessary to hear it to be saved, then how can they be included among Christ's offer of salvation is for ALL ? My point is this: The gospel has not been heard by ALL. The offer of salvation is open to ALL. Therefore the gospel is not necessary for salvation. Even if the gospel was heard by all today with modern communications, it was not so for the last 2000 years. To us the only answer is that God makes himself known to man as explained in Romans 1 above. This knowledge must be enough to have people draw near to God and He to them, to save them as he saves anyone who hears the gospel and draws near and is saved. I am not in any way diminishing the importance of the gospel, but pointing out that as in OT God could reach and save Gentiles who did not hear the law, So in NT times HE can reach and save people who have not heard the gospel, since it says he died for all, but all have not heard the gospel. What say you? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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48 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119026 | ||
This is very interesting Steve. Thanks for your post. Agree with you that Christ died so that All might be redeemed, though we know not all will take the offer. 1 Tim 2:3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. If Christ desires that all men be saved, means He makes the offer of salvation to all. If he did not make the offer to one person, then His desire would be NOT to save that person. John 5:24 you quoted. This verse speaks of ones who do hear the gospel. It says nothing about those that have not heard it, so we cannot conclude that those that do not hear will not be saved. It defies logic to do so. For the following verse, text is in small letters my COMMENT INSERTED IN CAPITAL LETTERS. John 6:44-45 No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. THIS IS INDEPENDENT OF WHETHER ONE HAS THE GOSPEL TO READ OR NOT. IT IS NOT THE GOSPEL THAT DRAWS ONE TO CHRIST, BUT THE FATHER IN HEAVEN HIMSELF. And I will raise him up on the last day. It is written in the Prophets'and they will all be taught by God. Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to Me. THE WRITTEN GOSPEL IS NOT MENTIONED AS BEING REQUIRED. WE HAVE TO HEAR DIRECTLY FROM THE FATHER AND LEARN FROM HIM TO COME TO CHRIST. HAVING THE GOSPEL BUT NOT BEING DRAWN IS OF NO USE TO US. Your comment: "The only way to Jesus is by hearing the word of God."cannot be found, at least that I know of, in the gospel. The only way to Christ is to be drawn by the FATHER is. In His drawing people to Christ, I do not see how that can be limited to the gospel, since many never came in contact with it. The great commission as it is called. Mark 16:15. The statement "go into all the world" is addressed to the 11 disciples. We assume they did what they were told. Many assume that that means all believers are to do this, which is not so, because it contradicts this passage. James 3:1 Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly. James 3:3:1 Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, knowing that as such we shall incur a stricter judgment. The job it is of an angel in the end times to preach the gospel to all who dwell on the earth. It is therefore not possible for man to accomplish this in the first place at this point in time. If it were the task of men to do it, then why send an angel as well? Rev 14:6 And I saw another angel flying in midheaven, having an eternal gospel to preach to those who live on the earth, and to every nation and tribe and tongue and people; This preaching of the gospel seems to leave no one out. All hear it. even so not all heed it at this time. It is probably done as a last chance for all to change their minds and accept Christ. Lastly: Your comment we have NO biblical examples of any person being saved without God's special revelation of Himself to that person. Logically: No bear in your house does not mean they do not exist. You are perfectly correct however. The FATHER Himself draws us to Christ(We all get a personal revelation from the Father) but again that cannot be limited to the written gospel, since many thoughout history have had no access to it. We have to be careful what we teach, because teaching it wrong is not a good idea. The stricter judgement of teachers probably has something to do with teaching wrong things and thereby leading others astray, or harming them in some way. This is not to say that bible study and discussion is not good, quite the contrary, we learn lots from it. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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49 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119087 | ||
Hi Hank: Thanks for the reply. No need to have a yes vs no session. I comment to things I see written on the forum to encourage people on it to think logically and read into any passsage only what it says. I post only those things I honestly believe are true,and logical. When I look at a passage, I test its meaning this way. 1. What does it actually say? Don't omit any thought 2. What does it not say ? Do not add anything it does not say. 3. Does the meaning I think it has, agree with all else I know about scriptures. If there is a contradiction between any two verses, then we try to change our thinking to resolve the conflict. This is how you can easily get us to change our thinking about any passage. Point out how one thought I post contradicts another thought I post. If a thought you hold contradicts thoughts I hold, then change in my thinking is not so easy to make. I thinks works the same for you and others. The challenge for us then, is to read all passages accurately.without adding or taking anything away,and having its meaning agree with other related thoughts in our belief. If you want to point out where my thinking is wrong on being able to be saved without having access to the gospel for instance do this. Send me the verse that you think states my thought is wrong. I'll send you my interpretration. You look for a contradiction between the verse in question and anything I have said so far on the forum. If you find a contradiction in my statements, I'll thank you for pointing it out and try to find out what is wrong with my thinking. We are into bible study for one purpose. To find out the truth about what the bible says. Alternatively you could post a passage that you think states one can only be saved if one has contact with the gospel Or that if they donot have the gospel they cannot be saved. Sincerely Henry and Emmy. |
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50 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119141 | ||
Hi BradK Yours is a good plan. It reflects very well how we approach it It will work if God is with you. Sincerely Henry and Emmy. |
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51 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119232 | ||
Hi Hank This is the point I tried to make in the previous post. If I have the scriptures interpreted incorrectly, the best way for you to convince me of that fact is to point out that two interpretations I hold contradict each other. I hold that if two interpretations conflict, then at least one of them is wrong if not both, and I have to rethink the interpretations I hold. In fact discovering a contradiction within ones interpretations can lead to real learning. If you were trying to convince me that one has to have the gospel in order to be saved Try to find a contradiction within any statements I made on the topic. I will make some statements here that I consider to be TRUE. 1. Jesus died so that all sinners would have a chance at salvation. 2. No one can be saved except through Christ. 3. Jesus desires that all turn from sin and repent so they can be saved. 4. Not all have been aware of the gospel in their lifetime. If interested and you believe one of these statements is FALSE can you post a passage that you think supports that it is FALSE. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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52 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119235 | ||
Hi Steve: 1 Tim 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men, 2 for kings and all who are in authority, in order that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. I agree that this passage talks about praying. I understand it to say that this kind of praying is good and acceptable to God our Saviour who desires all men to be saved and come to the knowledge of the truth. I do not follow your reasoning when you say I took this out of context. This passage says two things. 1. Praying in the way indicated is good and acceptable to Christ 2. Christ desires that all men come to accept the offer of salvation , not just Kings and rulers. Are you saying the second statement is FALSE? If so why ? Can you find a passage that says Jesus intended to offer salvation to some but not others? In both verse 1 and 3,4 it says "all men". To me means all men, not just kings and rulers. Kings and rulers are mentioned in particular because we have a real interest in them doing things right for us to have a peaceful life. It says to me pray for all men, but especially for rulers. Here are some different translations of the same verses: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- 1The first thing I want you to do is pray. Pray every way you know how, for everyone you know. 2Pray especially for rulers and their governments to rule well so we can be quietly about our business of living simply, in humble contemplation. 3This is the way our Savior God wants us to live. 4He wants not only us but everyone saved, you know, everyone to get to know the truth we've learned MSG ------------------------------------------------------------------ 1I urge you, first of all, to pray for all people. As you make your requests, plead for God's mercy upon them, and give thanks. 2Pray this way for kings and all others who are in authority, so that we can live in peace and quietness, in godliness and dignity. 3This is good and pleases God our Savior, 4for he wants everyone to be saved and to understand the truth. ---------- John 6:45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me. You ADD that this hearing and learning comes only through the gospel. The verse does not actually say what you added. My test: What does a verse say and what does a verse not say. You are limiting the Father from all other forms of communication which are listed as being used in the past. Does it actually say that the gospel is the only way left ? If so where ? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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53 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119238 | ||
Hi Hank: Your question: Why do you place the burden on me to provide Scripture to prove your four statements false when you have not provided Scripture to prove them true? If I am wrong, I desire to know. You can help by trying to point out contradictions in my thinking. The statements: 1. Jesus died so that all sinners would have a chance at salvation. 2. No one can be saved except through Christ. 3. Jesus desires that all turn from sin and repent so they can be saved. 4. Not all have been aware of the gospel in their lifetime. My reasons for thinking this: Statement 3: 1 Tim 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men,2 for kings and all who are in authority, in order that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Verse 4 says Christ desires that all men come to salvation. Statement 2: Acts4:12 "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved." Statement 1: The only way to be saved is through His death and resurrection, therefore He died So all men would have a chance at salvation. Statement 4 is not in the gospel Here is why I believe it to be true. The scriptures were not written till well after a generation after the time of Christ. Therefore many died without having seen or heard the gospel Paul got as far as Rome, but the church was mostly in hiding, so very few in Rome actually Got to hear him, let alone those in Norway, and Russia. His letter got to the churches he wrote, but most others in these communities did not read or hear them. Can one argue that the gospel got to China, Australia, Mexico, Canada, South and Central America within the 1st say 100 years after Christ ? During exploration of the New World, is there record that one nation or tribe in any land were talking about, or had heard about the story of Christ being crucified so that they could be saved ? It seems that if the Europeans had found a tribe in the New World teaching Christ, then that would have been noticed and recorded In the excavations of cities or villages of cultures in the new world, has any one ever found any hint that these cultures made religious relics as evidence of Christ crucified ? Just because there is no evidence, does not constitute proof that it did not exist logically speaking, but, let me ask you, do you think the gospel existed in America before 1492 when Columbus came? If these statements are all true: 1. Christ died so all have a chance at redemption 2. Christ desires that all come to salvation 3. The only way to salvation is through Christ 4. Not all heard the gospel. Then the only conclusion that can be drawn is Christ desires to and can save those who have never heard the gospel. Can you point out a problem with either the scriptures quoted, or the logical truth of the statements made. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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54 | Dead in Christ, what does this mean? | Rom 6:3 | Emmy | 116124 | ||
Dead in Christ: The dead in Christ are resurrected when He returns. These will rule with Him for 1000 years. They also meet him in the air along with those that are changed in the twinkling of an eye. They will live with the Lord forever. To be dead in Christ means the person died, but before he died he was a true Christian. He/she was a believer in Christ and was born again. ie received the Holy Spirit. It is simply a person who having the Holy Spirit in him/her dies. sincerely Henry |
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55 | Reconciling Rom 8:39 with Heb 10:26 | Rom 8:39 | Emmy | 116633 | ||
Romans 8:39 says that no one is able to force you to your saved state. Heb 10:26 Leaves open the option for a person to change his/her own mind. That is one can through his/her actions lose saved state. Angels were not spared if they sinned. If one is saved, he is no more than restored. Being restored does not mean free will no longer applies. It was never true that one could not rebel against God. Angels who have not fallen in the past can still choose to do so. Man fell from grace in the beginning. There was a way made for us to be restored. Being restored does not mean anyhting goes from that time on without a possibility of falling from grace again. If this happens it says in Hebrews we cannot be restored a second time. Simply stated No one else can destroy our restored state of grace, but we have the free will to cancel the restored state by our own actions. take care |
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56 | Reconciling Rom 8:39 with Heb 10:26 | Rom 8:39 | Emmy | 116670 | ||
With all respect. Heb 6:1 Therefore leaving the elementary teaching about the Christ, let us press on to maturity, not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works and of faith toward God, 2 of instruction about washings, and laying on of hands, and the resurrection of the dead, and eternal judgment. 3 And this we shall do, if God permits. 4 For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, 5 and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, 6 and then have fallen away, it is impossible to renew them again to repentance, since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God, and put Him to open shame. Verse 1: Let "US" clearly refers to people being addresses, namely the Hebrews. They are born again, and are encouraged to strive to become mature in understanding and living. They came through repentance and Christ's sacrifice to faith. One who has repented and made alive in Christ through the Spirit should not dwell on these beginning things of faith. Verse 2: Neither should they continually go one about washings, the fact that there is a resurrection, and a judgement. These are basic things. Verse 3: We should instead press on to mature, being skilled in righteousness. Even this only happens if God permits it. He is in full control of this, and we are not. Verse 4: Does not switch to talking about someone else, but these self same people. It is speaking of those who have received the Holy Spirit, who were enlightened by it, tasted heavenly gifts, Verse 5: have known the word of God, and the power of the age to come. This cannot be talking about people who have never been born of the Spirit, since it says they were partakers of it. Verse 6: If after having experienced all of the above, one then falls away, he cannot come to repentance a second time and expect through it to be accepted again though Christ was crucified, because that is like crucifying Him a second time. If people were not able to do this, or if one COULD NOT fall away, this warning is meaningless, and aimed at no one. Here is the logic for that: Unbelievers are not partakers of the Holy Spirit, so it cannot be addressing them. People born of the Spirit who remain in it, are not trying to make use of the sacrifice of Christ a second time. This passage speaks of those trying to come to repentance a SECOND time, and use the sacrifice of Christ a second time. The mere mention of this situation let alone the warning against trying it means the possibility of people trying to do this exists. The only reason one would try to come to repentance again and to make use of the sacrifice a scond time, is that the benefit of the repentance and the sacrifice the first time had worn off. ie that person fell away. He would not have to come to repentance, or try to crucify Christ again for himself. We cannot count on the opinion of others, but only the word of God as it is revealed to us through the Spirit. Holy Spirit is our teacher, and we can trust no other, no matter what their status. Ryrie could be wrong. 1 John 2:27 As for you, the anointing you received from him remains in you, and you do not need anyone to teach you. But as his anointing teaches you about all things and as that anointing is real, not counterfeit--just as it has taught you, "remain in him". If one is open to it, the words "remain in him" say "do not try to leave and expect to come back" To teach that once saved no matter what is not sound or consistant with what has happened to both man and angels alike in the past. I can only say that I cannot convince you of this, but that the whole of the bible can be interpreted with falling away as a possibility without contradiction in any part of it. There might be contradiction between these statements and what others believe, but these statements are not self contradictory to my knowledge, or to any scripture passage that I can think of. Sincerely Emmy and Henry |
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57 | is there security of the believer | Rom 8:39 | Emmy | 116672 | ||
If one remains in Him then yes, but do "abide" Make the choice to abide, and no one can remove you. 1 John 2: 28 And now, little children, abide in Him, so that when He appears, we may have confidence and not shrink away from Him in shame at His coming. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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58 | is there security of the believer | Rom 8:39 | Emmy | 116767 | ||
Hank I have encountered these arguements before, but we disagree. Our premises are opposite on this point. Mine: One can fall away. Your: One cannot fall away. We can therefore not both be right on this point. Logical conclusions: If you are right then I have nothing to lose, since you claim that if one is born again, though he sin or hold erroneous beliefs he cannot lose life. If I am right, I am likely to be more vigilant, knowing the possibility exists that things could turn out wrong in the end. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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59 | is there security of the believer | Rom 8:39 | Emmy | 116855 | ||
Dear kalos: Does the logic you state also apply to your premise and conclusion. From my view point this is how it works: I did not start with the premise that one could fall away. I started by reading scripture. These readings lead to the conclusion that one can fall away. We then found that no scripture passage contradicts this premise at any time. If you wish, post a passage that you think says most strongly that one cannot fall away and I'll try toreturn a response as to exactly what I think the passage means. Sincerely Emmy and Henry |
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60 | desperate for help | 1 Tim 5:8 | Emmy | 118418 | ||
1 Tim 5:8 And whoever does not provide for relatives, and especially for family members, has denied the faith and is worse than an unbeliever. If your husband is actually neglecting you and his children, his desire to be an apostle is in vain according to this passage. An apostle of Christ is to love even strangers, let alone his own wife and children. What does he have to teach other if indeed he does strike his own wife. No real apostle would do this. The unfortunate thing is that if he is behaving improperly regarding love and care for his family he is not only running the risk of giving a real Christian a bad name, but doing serious harm first to himself, and possibly to you and the children. Your real problem is not having too much of a Christian, but not enough. One who does not provide for his family is worse than a non believer, and what could be worse than that ? Answer: a non believer who does not change his non belief, or a believer who neglects his family and does not turn from it. One neglecting his family even if a believer serves no one but his own interests which cannot be Christ like. Your problem is that if he is neglectful, and I of course do not know that, he is unlikely to agree with the passage quoted above, though someone show it to him, whisper it in his ear, or scream it at him at the top of ones voice. Many unbelieving husbands do better than neglect their family members. Wanting him to fall out of a plane is not appropriate if you are Christian yourself. Is it not ironic that a believer in Christ can actually be worse off than a non believer. Not as bad, but worse. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
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