Results 21 - 40 of 51
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: David24597 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | are we to observe all feast days? | Zech 14:16 | David24597 | 159670 | ||
Many of the Old Testament ordinances were done away with when Jesus was crucified - Col. 2:14. Those mentioned in Eze. chapters 40 though 48 are part of what we call the old Mosaic or Levitical laws (see Eze. 43:18 and 44:5). Heb. chapter 9 is a good reference to this. The saved christian is not obligated to keep these Levitical laws and would in fact be denying the saving blood of Jesus if he/she were to sacrifice lambs or goats for forgiveness of sins. The Passover, Yum Kippor and many of the Old Testament feast days required such sacrifices. Also Jer. 31:36 could be a reference to the end of the Jewish Dispensation once the old ordinances have been done away with at the cross of Jesus |
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22 | Are babies going in the rapute? | Matt 24:22 | David24597 | 159674 | ||
I don't see the connection between your question and the reference verse (Matt.24:22). However it is only for God to decide who is to be saved. On the one hand the sins of the wicked are also visited upon their children up to the 3rd and 4th generation (Ex. 20:5, 34:7, Num. 14:18, Deut. 5:9 and Jer. 32:18). Yet (on the other hand) the saved son is not quilty for the sins of his father (Eze. 18:17). This would of course assume that child is old enough to make his own decisions. Only God can determine that. |
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23 | was jesus in heaven before becoming man | John 1:3 | David24597 | 157910 | ||
hello Sassy You can also add John 17:5 here. |
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24 | WHY DOES THE BIBLE SAY THAT THE DEVIL IS | John 8:44 | David24597 | 159736 | ||
To kinda sum up what others here are saying: The Devil, or Satan, is an angel that rebelled against God and was cast out of heaven. He was once a covering cherub named Lucifer but let pride in his great strength, wisdom and beauty lead him to think he could overthrow God. (Ezek. 28:11-19 and Isa. 14:12-20) The book of Revelation uses symbols to denote his new personality as a serpent and dragon (Rev. 12:9). He is even called a roaring lion in I Peter 5:8. |
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25 | Is speaking in tongues ok in church, eve | 1 Corinthians | David24597 | 159733 | ||
"Speaking in tongues" and "speaking in an unknown tongue" are 2 different things. Read Acts. 2:7-12 for an example of "speaking in tongues". The Holy Spirit would interpret what the apostles said in a language the listener would be able to understand. However to "speak in an unknown tongue" is forbidden in puplic places of worship in the Bible unless there is an interpreter present to interpret what is being said - I Cor. 14:27-29. | ||||||
26 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157823 | ||
We are saved by grace. It is a gift from God. There is nothing we can do to gain this grace for ourselves. However that does not mean that we cannot chose to again seperate ourselves from God thorugh our unrepented evil deeds. If you wish to remain saved then you must "continue" in Him. I John chapter 2 | ||||||
27 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157824 | ||
One more thought here. (There should be an "edit" button - anyway I'll post one more thing). Rom. 3:25 specifies it is the sins of the past that are forgiven. Sins in the future dont exist yet. Once a sin is committed it should be repented of. Then it is a "past" sin and can be forgiven. True repentance also means to stop sinning that particular sin. Not from fear of punishment but because you are truly sorry for doing it. Sins continually comitted (even if you ask God to forgive you) will not be forgiven until you stop doing that sin. "We are saved by grace..." That grace reaches us through faith. "We are saved by grace through faith..." Yet faith without works is dead. Our faith is made perfect through our works, and by our works is our faith shown to others (James chapter 2). |
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28 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157839 | ||
Hi BradK Simple question: Can something that does not exist be forgiven? Do sins in the future even exist yet? All sins that exist can be forgiven (with the exception of blasphemy against the Holy Ghost. But that's another subject anyway). Sins in the future have not been commited yet therefore do not exist yet. The text in Col 2:13 "all trespasses", i.e. "all sins", are obviously all sins in existence. These can be none other than sins of the past. The true believer (born again saved or whatever you want to call it) must remain obedient to remain saved. Consider the entire chapter of Rom 6 below. Pay attention to the parts I have capitalized. Rom. 6:1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? Rom 6:2 God forbid. HOW SHALL WE, THAT ARE DEAD TO SIN, LIVE ANY LONGER THEREIN? Rom 6:3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? Rom 6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so WE ALSO SHOULD WALK IN NEWNESS OF LIFE. Rom 6:5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection: Rom 6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin. Rom 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin. Rom 6:8 Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him: Rom 6:9 Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. Rom 6:10 For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God. Rom 6:11 Likewise RECKON YE ALSO YOURSELVES TO BE DEAD INDEED UNTO SIN, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord. Rom 6:12 LET NOT SIN THEREFORE REIGN IN YOUR MORTAL BODY, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof. Rom 6:13 Neither yield ye your members as instruments of unrighteousness unto sin: but yield yourselves unto God, as those that are alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God. Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. Rom 6:15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. Rom 6:16 KNOW YE NOT, THAT TO WHOM YE YIELD YOURSELVES SERVANTS TO OBEY, HIS SERVANTS YE ARE TO WHOM YE OBEY; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness? Rom 6:17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you. Rom 6:18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness. Rom 6:19 I speak after the manner of men because of the infirmity of your flesh: for as ye have yielded your members servants to uncleanness and to iniquity unto iniquity; even so now yield your members servants to righteousness unto holiness. Rom 6:20 For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness. Rom 6:21 What fruit had ye then in those things whereof ye are now ashamed? for the end of those things is death. Rom 6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life. Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. You said "Are we then saved by grace but kept by works? You are advocating conditional forgiveness my friend, if I understand you correctly:-)" Do you know how many times the word "If" is in the Bible? 1,420 times in the KJV Are you saying that you can continue in (or renew) disobedience to God and still be saved? Don't even the saved have a free will? Can they not choose? |
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29 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157840 | ||
1 John 2:24 "If that which you have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye shall also continue in the Son, and in the Father." That word "continue" seems to me to denote a perpetual growth towards perfection just from the way the text is worded if nothing else. Are we not commanded to grow into all righteousness? Ps. 92:12. Mal. 4:2. Eph. 4:15. 1 Peter 2:2. 2 Peter 3:18 |
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30 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157841 | ||
I would have to agree with Doc. The only difference between a believer and non-believer is the saving grace through the blood of Jesus. Even a non-believer can take steps to better himself but without the saving grace of God it is of no use. God does in fact show us where we fall short (sometimes through chastening us) in the hopes that we will grow out of it. That choice of growth is ours | ||||||
31 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157894 | ||
Mark 3:28 Lev. 16:21, 30, 34 Ps. 25:18 Ps. 51:9 Isa. 38:17 Ezek. 18:21 Micah 7:19 1 Pet. 4:8 1 John 1:9 Matt. 12:31 Are you saying sins that dont even exist can be forgiven? Jesus died to forgive something that doesnt exist? Jesus died on the cross to make it possible for His people to become saved. Sins are not fogiven until they are confessed and forsaken. Jesus death on the cross did not grant forgiveness from sins that 1- hadnt been committed yet and 2- havent been repented of yet. In order for any sin to be forgiven it has to have been done first then repented of. Dont misunderstand me, Im not saying you should commit a sin just so you can confess it and gain repentance. There is no excuse for commiting any sins. They should be avoided at all costs. If we should slip and sin though, we have the option of repenting. If we dont repent than we obviously are not saved. |
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32 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157911 | ||
What difinitive evidence do you have from scripture alone that states the saved can not fall again into a state of being "unsaved" (for lack of a better word). Where is the scriptural proof that plainly states that once saved you are always saved and can never fall from grace again? Please refrain from quotes from other humans or human supposition. I'm asking for scripture references only and not vague references that require redefinition to prove your theories. |
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33 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157912 | ||
Kalos you wrote "You ARE saying Jesus' blood is not sufficient for all sin, but only the sin(s) that had been committed up until the moment he died on the cross. So everyone born after the Crucifixion is on their own and they have to find some other way -- other than the blood of Christ -- to make atonement for sins." I haven't said that at all. Please read my posts a little more thoroughly. When I say "sins done in the future" I mean those commited after this point in time we call "now" NOT any sin done after the death of Jesus. To say that "those sins we will do at some point in time in the future are already forgiven" implies that we need to be forgiven for something we haven't even done yet. In which case those who are not saved are already guilty of things they haven't even done yet. God is the God of justice as well as the God of love. Where is the justice of condeming someone for something they haven't done yet? May not even do when the time comes? What has happened to freedom of choice now? The saved cannot choose to fall nor can anyone (saved or not) choose not to commit sins they are fated to do? |
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34 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157918 | ||
Hello Wild Olive First I requested you stick with only scripture. You added a quote from someone elses interpretations of the scriptures. Those verses you DID supply obviously would only apply to those that "have endured to the end" Matt. 10:22. There is nothing there in your references that shows it is not possible to again return to a sinful life and lose your salvation. Only if you have lost your free will you then have lost the power to choose. In which case you are not a creature of God (for He has created us with the power to choose) but have become a slave to another. |
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35 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157960 | ||
Wild Olive I am not denying that the saved have eternal life. Most of these texts also support that. What I am saying is the saved must contunue until the end to remain saved. Allow me to examine some of the texts you provided. Phil 1:6 is conditional "if" we remain sincere and without offence till the day of Christ. verse 10 So is that of 1 Peter 1:3-5 dependant upon our remaing faithful "to the end". verses 13 and 14 1 John 4:4 needs to be read with the entire chapter. Verse 12 adds the condition "if we love one another" and verse 17 shows a developement of that love over time. John 10:27-30 only applies to those that follow Jesus - verse 10. Obviuosly "follow" does not mean follow for a short time then turn away again later but to follow as long as they live. You should have added verses 20 and 21 to the text from John 3:16. It to is conditional upon our continual obedience. Funny you should add Titus 3:7 without including the very next verse there either. Consider 11 Chron. 1:13 and 1 Peter 1:13 Theres is abundant evidence in scriptures showing the saved must continue on in their fauth to remain saved. It would be a waste of time to take several hours searching through the Bible for passages most of you would discount anyway as you have those I have already supplied. I suggest each and every one of you to go back to the beginning, read the Bible through from Gen. to Rev. paying special close attention to every place this subject is mentioned. See for yourselves whether salvation is depentant on our remaining faithful throughout our lives. |
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36 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157990 | ||
Hi Mark. You said “I am saved if I hold on to my faith til the end, if I keep myself from returning to sin. If I do not do these things, I may lose my salvation. The work of salvation is begun by God, but continued by me. The work of maintaining my salvation is mine, and so the glory upon reaching heaven is mine.” Is this what the Bible teaches? I don't think so. You are so close to what I am saying but still a bit short of the mark. Consider Isa. 1:18 and Phil. 2:12. We can of our ownselves do nothing. But, with the help of the Holy Spirt, yes the work of maintaining our salvation is our own, with God's help. The "glory upon reaching heaven" is a SHARED glory. |
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37 | Does sin prove one is not a believer? | 1 Cor 6:9 | David24597 | 157991 | ||
again I wish there was an edit button to add this to the end of my last post: John 17:22, Rom. 8:18, 1 Cor. 15:41-43, 11 Cor. 4:17, Eph. 1:18, Col. 3:4, 1 Thess. 2:14, Heb. 2:10, 1 Peter 5:1-4 I added these cause I'm sure some will think I am trying to claim God's is not the only glory should be recieved. But our glory is that we give it to God. Rom. 15:17, 1 Cor. 1:29-31, 11 Cor. 10:17, Gal. 6:14, Rev, 21:24-26 |
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38 | How do you explain the mystery? | Phil 2:8 | David24597 | 159735 | ||
I think of it like this: God considers a man and his wife to be one being in and of itself - Gen. 2:24. The same would apply to a "family unit" so to speak. A family can consists of a man, his wife and any number of children or even other relitaves living with them. This "family unit" is one single family (i.e., in the eyes of God, one single being). So the "Godhead" is one God consisting of 3 seperate entities. Anyway that's how I attempt to explain the Trinity. Hope it helps. |
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39 | 1,000 year reign | 1 Thessalonians | David24597 | 159614 | ||
Hi Beana, I would suggest you examine I Thess. 4:13-18 while studying Rev. 20. To answer your main question Rev. 20:6 "Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years." Which would seem to indicate that those alive at Jesus' coming, together with the resurrected saints, will reign with Christ for the 1,000 years. Since this is the "first" resurrection then there would be none before it. The second resurrection would take place after the 1,000 years. Read I Thess. 4:13-18 again and tell me - is this the 1st or 2nd reserrection spoken of here? Obviously this takes place at the 2nd coming of Jesus and marks the beginning of the 1,000 years. Notice that the saints "meet the Lord in the air". Where (anywhere in the Bible) does it indicate the 1,000 year reign actually takes place on the earth? If the saints are taken off the earth as indicated in I Thess. 4 and this is the "first" resurrection of Rev. 20 then the 1,000 year reign must take place somewhere else, I would assume in heaven. After the 1,000 years is over Jesus comes back bringing with Him all the saints (Jude 1:14-15) and the evil dead are raised to face judgement and destruction (the 2nd resurrection). |
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40 | 1,000 year reign | 1 Thessalonians | David24597 | 159663 | ||
Hi Searcher, There are only 2 resurrections in the last days. Jesus' own words in John 5:28-29, the resurrection of life (i.e. the 1st resurrection of Rev. 20) and the resurrection of damnation (the 2nd one after the 1,000 years). To say there are more than these 2 resurrections is a direct contradiction of Rev. chapter 20. If there were others then John has lied calling the resurrection at the beginning of the 1,000 years is the 1st (if there are/were others before the 1st). All the righteous dead are raised at the same time, Jesus' second coming, and this marks the beginning of the 1,000 years of Rev. 20. These are the only ones "immune" from the second death - Rev. 20:6 |
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