Results 601 - 620 of 784
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Beja Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
601 | baptizem | Gal 5:19 | Beja | 226160 | ||
Shaul, I prefer to say that I believe in the perseverance of the saints rather than once saved always saved, because much of what people intend to mean by "once saved always saved" is very unbiblical. You are constructing very strange ideas from some vary sparse references in scripture. How is it that you have come up with the notion that to have your name written in the book of life means that you will be given the grace to have a chance to repent, but then rejecting that means that your name is then blotted out? It seems like you have built your entire soteriology upon some few verses in revelations while not considering the majority of scripture. 2. Again, you are constructed very wide notions of paridise, heaven and heavens of heavens from no scriptural supportt. What was the real substance in what Christ said was that the theif would be with HIM. Nowhere IN SCRIPTURE do we have any basis to believe that this means something else other than salvation, especially not the notion of some sort of holding facility where he would then be given a chance to decide his eternal fate. All caps in this post were meant to draw attention to emphasis, and not any loss of temper. You actually discussing these things and considering my points is refreshing. In Christ, Beja |
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602 | baptizem | Gal 5:19 | Beja | 226162 | ||
Shaul, I am a baptist pastor living in the southern states of USA. I understand scripture to be teaching basically a Calvinistic doctrine. However, I hesitate to say that because a great many things are assumed by that which a calvinist doesn't actually teach. However, I see we have at least some common ground in both believing in some sort of predistination, and we again also seem to agree that grace is needed for true faith and repentence. I can't see how it applies to this discussion, but I am an amillienialist. Also, though we don't necessarilly need to chase this point, I do not believe that one can be a believer of Jesus Christ and not be a Christian. Ephesians 2 and 3 establish very clearly that Jewish believers and Christian believers have been united in one body in Christ, and now there is no distinction. Anyways, I'm not sure what other information would be helpful. In Christ, Beja |
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603 | baptizem | Gal 5:19 | Beja | 226170 | ||
Shaul, The particular brand of baptists from which I come do teach that most of the dramatic spiritual gifts are done away with. I drift a bit from my particular theological heritage in that regard. My understanding of 1 Cor 13 is that as the word of God becomes more abundant and accessable in a particular culture, the more "knowledge based gifts" fade away, oracles being replaced by study, exegisis and familiarity with the word of God. This is quite different from saying that they are gone. Rather in various cultures of the world they are all in the process of fading away although at different points in that process in different cultures. As far as the predistination goes, perhaps it will help if you think of them as predestined to reject or accept the gospel. As you seemed to have indicated in a previous post, nobody accepts Christ without the grace given them to do so (John 6). However, I believe when grace is given them to do so, it is grace that they actually do so. As Christ said, "All that the Father gives to me WILL come to me." That is John 6 also. I'd quote more specifically but my daughter is sitting in my lap watching me type so I can't grab my Bible. Anyways, I hope this helps. In Christ, Beja |
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604 | How could Satan sin? | Ephesians | Beja | 221209 | ||
Dhudspeth15, I encourage you to do a few things. First, what scripture are you using to state that there is no sin in heaven? I know that is going to, from a knee jerk reaction, sound heretical, but consider it. And if you find something, make sure you aren't confusing eternity past, with the new heavens and the new earth which God is preparing for those in Christ. So first, make sure you are thinking in scriptural terms. Second, I encourage you to look at the references in the book of Ephesians to the place referred to as the "heavenlies." Ephesians 1:3,20 2:6, 3:10, 6:12. Especially the last reference. See if these things can help you come to any conclusion on the matter. In Christ, Beja |
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605 | The gift of tongues | Eph 1:1 | Beja | 226702 | ||
Crys, Brad has given you an excellent answer but I want to add my voice for the sake of emphasis. Not all believers speak in tongues. Orthodox Christianity has never taught any such thing to my knowledge. How could you need more than the scripture Brad quoted to you, 1 Cor 12:30? Paul very clearly teaches that not all Christians have this gift! If you read in detail that section of 1 Corinthians Paul explains that it is not even the most desirable gift by far! And in addition to that Paul lays out clearly that we are not to demand others to have our spiritual giftings. Second, if you take a look a the last chapter of Mark, could we not say that the things listed there are meant to Characterize what people will see in groups of believers as it spreads rather than individual Christians? Third, if you want to see the true marks of a Holy spirit filled Christian, read the first half of Romans chapter 8. The true marks of the Holy Spirit leading and indwelling you is putting to death the sinful desires of the flesh. Fourth, the book of 1 John is written to Christians so that they may be able to tell that they truely are born again believers and speaking in tongues is never even mentioned! Be very careful here, in fact, I would counsel you to flee this church and go to a sounder more scriptural church, however other than simply mentioning that I'll say no more as it goes a bit beyond the purpose of the forum which is merely to study the scriptures. In Christ, Beja |
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606 | The gift of tongues | Eph 1:1 | Beja | 226717 | ||
EdB, I'd just like to point out, that most of these scriptures have nothing at all to do with speaking in tongues, though a couple do. Act 1:4 Gathering them together, He commanded them not to leave Jerusalem, but to wait for what the Father had promised, "Which," He said, "you heard of from Me; (I assume this one was meant to include verse 5, but it also has nothing to do with speaking in tongues. Act 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance. Act 8:12 But when they believed Philip preaching the good news about the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ, they were being baptized, men and women alike. Act 10:44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. (To be fair, this one would deal with it if it was stretched to include verse 46.) Act 11:14 and he will speak words to you by which you will be saved, you and all your household.' (this is obviously referring to the gospel, not speaking in tongues.) Act 15:7 After there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, "Brethren, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles would hear the word of the gospel and believe. Luk 24:49 "And behold, I am sending forth the promise of My Father upon you; but you are to stay in the city until you are clothed with power from on high." 1Co 12:1 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I do not want you to be unaware. As you can see, most of these have nothing to do with anything regarding speaking in tongues, and the ones which refer to speaking of tongues do not in any way teach a doctrine that all believers will do so, nor do they in any way teach a doctrine that speaking in tongues must precede any other gift. I simply want to post out these scriptures clearly, because it is easy to see a stream of simple verse numbers like that and think perhaps the statement holds weight because of ample scriptural testimony. However, I hope it is clear that there is very little to be found in that string of verses. As a side note, this is not meant to be in any way a rebuke to EdB. EdB's post was in the spirit of explination and was taken as such. Nor do I intend this post to be for the purpose of attacking any denomination. Rather I mean it for furthering the purpose of the forum by studying what scripture actually says. In Christ, Beja |
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607 | 3 levels of Christianity as per Ephesian | Eph 1:3 | Beja | 228062 | ||
Soca, There are not three levels of Christianity in Ephesians. Everything is granted us from eternity in Christ (1:4), to be received in pledge upon our hearing and believing the truth (1:13,14) and climatically received in the ages to come (2:7). In fact, I would suggest that the notion that there are different categories of Christians to be completely contrary to the message of Ephesians. Eph 4:4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; Eph 4:5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, Eph 4:6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all. In Christ, Beja |
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608 | 3 levels of Christianity as per Ephesian | Eph 1:3 | Beja | 239449 | ||
Greetings Fares, To my knowledge there is no "3 levels" of Christianity in Ephesians nor in any other book. But as this question seems to keep getting asked I am terribly curious. Where is this question coming from? Who has told you that there are three levels to be found in the book of Ephesians? In Christ, Beja |
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609 | Heaven or hell predetermined? | Eph 1:11 | Beja | 223111 | ||
Lightedsteps, Rom 11 I say then, God has not rejected His people, has He? May it never be! For I too am an Israelite, a descendant of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin. God has not rejected His people whom He foreknew. Or do you not know what the Scripture says in the passage about Elijah, how he pleads with God against Israel? "Lord, THEY HAVE KILLED YOUR PROPHETS, THEY HAVE TORN DOWN YOUR ALTARS, AND I ALONE AM LEFT, AND THEY ARE SEEKING MY LIFE." But what is the divine response to him? "I HAVE KEPT for Myself SEVEN THOUSAND MEN WHO HAVE NOT BOWED THE KNEE TO BAAL." In the same way then, there has also come to be at the present time a remnant according to God's gracious choice. But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace There was a remnant. It specifically states it came to by through God's gracious choice. So specifically stated that God "chose" this remnant. Then it goes so far to say what the bases was for how God chose them. It was purely by grace. In other words it was not based on anything good which was in us or done by us whether in the past or forseen to be done in the future, but purely grace. Rom 9:10 And not only this, but there was Rebekah also, when she had conceived twins by one man, our father Isaac;for though the twins were not yet born and had not done anything good or bad, so that God's purpose according to His choice would stand, not because of works but because of Him who calls, it was said to her, "THE OLDER WILL SERVE THE YOUNGER." Just as it is written, "JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED." What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be! For He says to Moses, "I WILL HAVE MERCY ON WHOM I HAVE MERCY, AND I WILL HAVE COMPASSION ON WHOM I HAVE COMPASSION." So then it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy. He gives an example of two children yet in the womb. Why does he choose this example? Because there is no way that these two could yet have done ANYTHING to earn God's favor yet. Same parents, same lineage, same everything, no deeds done. Yet God chooses one and not the other. Then he specifically asks if this is fair for God to do. Now if I was missunderstanding Paul, then this would be the perfect time for Paul to correct us all. Paul could have easily said, "Is it fair? NO you are missunderstanding me, I don't mean to say that God actually predestines in that sense!" But Paul didn't correct it. On the contrary he affirms that God has the right to choose one and reject the other based on nothing but his choice. Paul comes to the conclusion that God's sovereign choosing unto salvation is neither "ultimately" dependant on man's doing anything, or man's choosing/willing anything, but it is ultimately dependent on God who chooses to have mercy on some. Yet we would all scream out, "This isn't fair!" But isn't that exactly what Paul addresses next? Rom 9:17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "FOR THIS VERY PURPOSE I RAISED YOU UP, TO DEMONSTRATE MY POWER IN YOU, AND THAT MY NAME MIGHT BE PROCLAIMED THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE EARTH." So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires. You will say to me then, "Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, "Why did you make me like this," will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? Look! He brings up our exact objection, is this fair for God to do? Once again, if we were missunderstanding Paul, then again here is his moment to correct us. He could have answered his own objection by simply saying, "No no, you missunderstand me, I'm not suggesting election/predestination/etc." But once again he doesn't do this but rather says, "Who are you to talk back to God!" He actually reaffirms that God does in fact have the right to do this. Look carefully at this verse in 2 Thess. 2Th 2:13 But we should always give thanks to God for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth. Now, focus on the sentence structure what were we chosen for? We were chosen for salvation from the beginning through sanctification by the Spirit faith in the truth We were not simply chosen based on some forseen faith, we were chosen for that faith. We were chosen to be saved through faith. The defenses from scripture go on and on and on and on. I have long since come to realize that many people will not desire to believe in predestination. But please, lets not say there is nothing in the Scriptures to suggest it. In Christ, Beja |
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610 | Heaven or hell predetermined? | Eph 1:11 | Beja | 223123 | ||
Dear Lightedsteps, This was the phrase that I was responding to: "However even the Ephesians verses, do not speak of a remnant chosen by His own counsel, before creation, for salvation. As a matter of fact, I can't find anywhere in scripture where it does say what you have just espoused." You stated nowhere in scripture is this stated. In response to Romans chapter 11, after speaking of the Israelites in that time, he says that at the present time a there is also a remnant according to God's gracious choice. I believe that when Paul says at the present time, he does in fact mean at the present time. He is not suggesting that in the time around the writing of this letter there is a God chosen remnant, but in 2000ad there will not be a God chosen remnant. Yes he is speaking of Jews here, but do you mean to suggest that God does predestine Jews for salvation, but does not predestine gentiles? As I stated, I do not intend to convince you of election. I think trying to do so would likely be less than edifying and possibly in violation of the user agreement since we agree not to argue about any issue that is knowingly devisive. People may disagree whether this topic fits that description. But what I do intend to accomplish is to not let the above quote go uncorrected. If people choose not to believe in election it does not mean that they should pretend there is no scriptural basis for it. I whole heartedly believe nobody can loose their salvation, but I don't treat lightly those who do. Why? Because there are a lot of passages that, in the absence of a lot of scripture restraining our interpretation, can in fact strongly lead us to that conclusion. The truth is the amount of scripture that indicates God chooses from the foundation of the world, individuals whom he will effectually bring about the salvation of while he passes over others is overwhelming. I do not intend to argue whether it is in the verses quoted by Doc, but simply to address the suggestion that it is nowhere to be found. In Christ, Beja |
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611 | Heaven or hell predetermined? | Eph 1:11 | Beja | 223159 | ||
Lightedsteps, I'm not sure what the confusion is, brad simply stated: Scripture does speak of god CHOOSING US according to the intentions of his good will. Then he posted these two verses. Ephesians 1:4,5 According as He has CHOSEN US....according to the GOOD PLEASURE OF HIS WILL. I'm not sure what the confusion is? Brad made a clear concise statement, and then posted a passage that said EXACTLY what he said. I must very much be missing what the difficulty is over. You might argue wha those words mean, but how can you say they weren't directly applying to what he said? Again, maybe I missed something. In Christ, Beja |
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612 | When saved do you receive the Holy Spiri | Eph 1:13 | Beja | 227681 | ||
Dickinson, Yes. Eph 1:13 In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation--having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise, In Christ, Beja |
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613 | Is it OK to danc on Good Friday? | Eph 2:1 | Beja | 223700 | ||
MoQSwan, There is nothing in scripture about dancing on good fridays. However, I must say that I find an interesting inconsistency in your post. You seem so very worried about being specifically in God's will with regards to this question, yet you feel free to follow your own feelings in spite of what scripture says in other areas. Hebrews 10:24,25 and let us consider how to stimulate one another to love and good deeds, not forsaking our own assembling together, as is the habit of some Scripture clearly commands us to be active in attending church. Also scripture clearly affirms that the gathering of the church is a place where God's presence is there in a unique way. Ephesians 2:19-22 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God's household, having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the corner stone, in whom the whole building, being fitted together, is growing into a holy temple in the Lord, in whom you also are being built together into a dwelling of God in the Spirit. 2 Corinthians 6:16 Or what agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; just as God said, "I will dwell in them and walk among them; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. Keep in mind the concept of the temple is a special place where God and man meets. And now that is in the church. So what I wonder is, if you are willing to throw out all of scriptures teachings in this regard for the sake of your feeling, "God resides in everything and not just merely a church," then why worry so very much over precise details of what scripture says in regards to dancing? In Christ, Beja |
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614 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223831 | ||
clsx2, Let's not forget that the very same man who was speaking in acts 2, Peter, later clarified that when he indicates baptism saves he does NOT refer to the actual act of baptism but rather what it represents which is the appeal to God for a good conscience on the basis of Jesus Christ (Faith.) See 1 Peter 3:21,22. In Christ, Beja |
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615 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223836 | ||
Godinus, You said that we should not be concerned so long as we can agree on two things. 1.) That we are all saved. I am very hesitant to affirm that anybody who is depending on something which we do, is in fact a saved person. 2.) That arguing doctrine causes division. I agree that it does, but if you are implying by that that we should cease to argue doctrine then I disagree entirely. It is very important that we understand what scripture teaches. Give me a divisive search for truth rather than a happy unity in heresy any day. Though admitedly a happy unity in truth is the goal. To answer your questions. 1.) Corresponding to what? Noah and his family being brought safely through the waters of the flood. That should be pretty clear though how it corresponds to it is certainly less simple. 2.) The brackets signal an interruption from the train of thought. In this case, Peter is saying that baptism now saves us, but he interupts his train of thought to make sure that we all know that when he says this he does not mean the dunking in water. In Christ, Beja |
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616 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223839 | ||
Godinus, I understand what you are saying. However, while I probably have no chance to convince clsx2, there are literally hundreds of people who frequent these forums to read them but never ever post. Among those people are some that read a post such as clsx2's and wonder how to respond to a verse such as what he referred to. Sometimes even when I have no expectation to persuade the person I'm speaking to, I post for the sake of the silent readers. In Christ, Beja |
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617 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223842 | ||
Godinus, Why stop reading Peter there? Keep reading the very passage you quoted, verse 9 says, "obtaining as teh outcome of your faith the salvation of your souls." Then later in verse 23, for you have been born again not of seed which is perishable but imperishable, that is through the living and enduring word of God. He goes on in this discussion of being born again through the word to say in chapter 2 verse 7, "This precious value then, is for you who believe" And I can hardly believe anybody would dare use Romans to justify baptismal regeneration. Romans 5:1,2 "Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand." Romans 3:24 and following say, "being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. (and on to verse 26)...for the demonstration, I say of His righteousness at the present time, so that he would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. In Christ, Beja |
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618 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223861 | ||
Godinus, You've written so much I think its a little beyond me to respond to the entirety of it as it deserves, as it would require a very massive post. However, let me show a few examples of the assumptions and poor exegesis that characterises your whole post. You said, "In order for this statement of yours to be true and fill the position of their works like you are saying then the act of baptism itself would have to come from their own head that baptism was something they could do in order to gain salvation but as you can see it was a mandate to the disciples from Jesus Himself. By that mandate it is showing that baptism is not in the realm of - - their works." So anything Jesus commands us to do becomes not a work? Jesus commanded a great many things including to do all that the pharisees commanded because they sat in the seat of Moses, and to be perfect as our Father in heaven was perfect. So now because Christ commanded them I can validly say that this is how you must be saved and I'm completely immune to the accusation that I'm preaching a works rightousness? Where are you getting such a notion from? The truth is that Christ did command us to do some works, but that does not mean everything he commanded us is the means of salvation. Next, the rest being spoken of in Hebrews four seems to be a future rest, not at all speaking of a rest from the law currently in Christ. The verse in Titus never even mentions baptism! On the contrary it says "by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit." The regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit is being called a washing. In fact this is what we affirm. I'm still not sure how you are trying to connect this verse to the ones in Ephesians. Are you suggesting that the works mentioned in Ephesians 2:10 is referring to the work of baptism? If so I am baffled as to how you can come to this conclusion since it lacks any basis whatsoever. You are just saying a great deal of unfounded things then dressing them in some very missaplied scriptures. Also this seems to be a very far cry from you encouraging me to just let everybody believe what they desire and that doctrine is devisive so lets just let people preach baptismal regeneration. In Christ, Beja |
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619 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223862 | ||
I found a great quote from A.T. Robertson while doing a search on this stuff. For those who don't know who he is, his book on greek grammer is basically a major milestone in greek studies still to this day referenced by greek scholars. Here is what he has to say about Acts 2:38 This phrase is the subject of endless controversy as men look at it from the standpoint of sacramental or of evangelical theology. In themselves the words can express aim or purpose for that use of "eis" does exist as in 1 Cor. 2:7....But then another usage exists which is just as good Greek as the use of "eis" for aim or purpose. It is seen in Matt. 10:41 in three examples "eis onoma prophetou, diakaiou, mathetou" where it cannot be purpose or aim, but rather the basis or ground, on the basis of the name of prophet, righteous man, disciple, because one is, etc. It is seen again in Matt. 12:41 about the preaching of Jonah....They repented because of (or at) the preaching of Jonah. The illustrations of both usages are numerous in the N.T. and the Koine generally (Robertson, Grammar, p. 592). One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received (A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, III:35-36). Incase any couldn't follow what he is saying, the big daddy of greek grammer says that it is a perfectly and equally valid use of greek grammer to translate Acts 2:38 as, "because of/based upon the forgiveness of sins" rather than "for the forgiveness of sins." And that this other option is so equally a valid way to translate it, that one will ultimately decide based on their own theological bent. In Christ, Beja |
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620 | is water-baptism needed for salvation? | Eph 2:8 | Beja | 223871 | ||
Godinus, You've misread me on two points. The divisive search for truth isn't the utopian idea you've understood me to say. Also, a mistaken belief is not a "truth." If there are two contradictory statements then at least one of them is wrong. So I believe with two contradictory statements we can seek to show that one is contrary to scripture, if not both. Second, when I said "lets just let people preach baptismal regeneration" I was in no way suggesting we do that, but rather quoting the spirit of one of your previous posts. If you are suggesting that baptism is the means of our salvation then I fully believe this is a heresy and it should not be preached. So I apologize for that confusion. In Christ, Beja |
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