Results 421 - 440 of 784
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Beja Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
421 | They immediately dropped their nets! WOW | Matt 16:17 | Beja | 225602 | ||
humility, Forgive me, but I hope you will permit me to answer your question in an indirect way as I have hopes it will do more to edify both you and the rest of us as well. I'd encourage you to read three passages and consider if they shed any light onto your question, then return and tell us what you see in those passages so we may all be blessed from your study. Matthew 16:13-18 John chapter 8 2 Cor 4:1-6. May God shed light on your study of His word. In Chist, Beja |
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422 | RIDING A CLOUD OR A WHITE HORSE? | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 225592 | ||
legsrandall, I really have no idea the context of the phrase in that song, so context would make all the difference....but.... If I told you that a cowboy was riding on the road would you tell me that I was wrong and that he was clearly on a horse? Language is a little bit more flexible than that. What if the idea meant was that Jesus was riding his white horse on the clouds towards them? However, context would make a difference how to understand what the song is saying. Though here is a verse that might ease your mind. Isaiah 19:1 "The oracle concerning Egypt. Behold, the LORD is riding on a swift cloud and is about to come to Egypt; The idols of Egypt will tremble at His presence, And the heart of the Egyptians will melt within them." I don't post this to suggest that he is NOT riding a white horse at the second coming. But I hope to open your eyes to how scripture often uses metaphorical language to try to express the glory and terror of the Almighty. Perhaps the song needs to be given the same opportunity. In Christ, Beja |
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423 | Who is revealing God's wrath? | Rom 1:18 | Beja | 225583 | ||
wick08, It seems to me, that in Romans 1, that the depravity being spoken of in Romans 1:26 is clearly God's punishment for their idolatry. Now from a more complete biblical study we know that there was already an existing depravity that spurred this sin, but here we seem to see God allowing a further depravity as punishment. It is important to note this is not God putting a greater sin into their hearts, but rather this is God letting up on his actively restraining the sin already there. So the punishment is God ceasing to restrain, so that they heap up greater judgment upon themselves. However, I suspect that the revelation of God's wrath referred to in this chapter could possibly extend beyond chapter one. In Christ, Beja |
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424 | God can't die or look on sin! | Matt 27:46 | Beja | 225435 | ||
EdB, Welcome back to the forums and thank you for your kind words. I think you are correct concerning Christ's words from the cross being an echo of the earlier words by David in the Psalm. I think He intended to allude to the entire psalm. One that goes into detail about his torment but ends with confidence in God's ultimate deliverance. In Christ, Beja |
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425 | God can't die or look on sin! | Matt 27:46 | Beja | 225424 | ||
CDBJ, We have to ask, what is it that scripture means when it says "He hath made him to be sin." Does it mean that in some way the actual nature of Christ changed? Did his body or form change as our sin was imputed to him? I think we'd agree not. Did in some way his being disposed to righteousness rather than sin change? I think we would agree not. In what sense was he "Made sin" for us? I would argue that this merely means that he was ascribed the punishment and guilt of our sin in a legal sense. Nothing in his nature changed, but merely his legal standing as guilty or innocent before God was altered on our behalf. Then comes the phrase that God can not look upon sin. This as I said in a previous post, means that God must punish sin, not that he in some way can't observe it. It means he can't stand by idly and ignore it. So then, God acted in punishing our sins in Christ. Therefore at no time was the nature of Christ changed nor did any problem arise in the union of his two natures. This is how I understand these things for what it is worth. In Christ, Beja |
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426 | God can't die or look on sin! | Matt 27:46 | Beja | 225416 | ||
CDBJ, Honestly I think we are missunderstanding what is being taught. What are we saying in that God can't look upon sin? Are we saying He isn't aware of it? Ofcourse not. Are we saying that he is physically turning his face away? How can He when he isn't physical? The notion that this is teaching that God can't in some way be aware of sin or turns his face is an error in my estimation. The point is that he can't stand by idly. He can't just look at it; He must judge sin. He must deal with it. Which is exactly what He did. There is therefore no puzzle to be answered. What was the second person of the trinity doing while the Father imputed sin upon Christ? He was suffering and dying for that sin. In Christ, Beja |
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427 | when we die are we go atraigth to heaven | OT general | Beja | 225291 | ||
Godsaves, Indeed it does. I believe that is revelation 20 that you are referring to. To my understanding, when we die, we are present with the Lord at that time but we are not yet in our final state. We won't yet have our final ressurection bodies. I think this is supported by the scriptures I referred you to and in addition 1 Thesselonians which says when Christ returns his saints will be with him. 1 Thess 4:14. So we are already with him, then he returns with us, and then we are ressurected. I believe the picture is that we are going to be reunited with our current bodies (although greatly changed) on the day of the ressurection. But in the mean time we are with the Lord in some other temporary arranged body. In Christ, Beja |
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428 | when we die are we go atraigth to heaven | OT general | Beja | 225288 | ||
Godsaves, I would recommend reading 2 Cor 5:1-8 and see if that persuades you of an answer to your question. I personally believe it is saying that we are immediately present with the Lord when we die, if we belong to Christ. In Christ, Beja |
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429 | Was all law and prophecy until John? | John 8:50 | Beja | 225235 | ||
Our times. An ongoing fullfillment being accomplished through the gospel. | ||||||
430 | Called from Idolatry | Josh 24:2 | Beja | 225209 | ||
Nevermind, I found it. Joshua 24:2 | ||||||
431 | Called from Idolatry | Not Specified | Beja | 225207 | ||
Where is the passage that states that Abraham came from a family of idol worshipers before God called him? | ||||||
432 | Called from Idolatry | Josh 24:2 | Beja | 225208 | ||
Where is the passage that states that Abraham came from a family of idol worshipers before God called him? | ||||||
433 | scriptues for the falsely accused? | 2 Tim 3:12 | Beja | 225091 | ||
Is there any better illustration of what you just told him, and specifically regarding his particular question, than the story of Joseph found in Genesis? In Christ, Beja |
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434 | Will Jews make it to heaven? | Rom 9:1 | Beja | 225048 | ||
Inquisitor, I've been looking again at the passage in John which you quoted, trying my best to see it through your eyes. I've been asking myself, if I had your theological beliefs, what in this passage would have caused me to think it defends my view? And I think I might have found it, though I'm still not certain. Perhaps your line of thinking whent something like this: "He who has My commandments and keeps them, it is he who loves Me. And he who loves Me will be loved by My Father, and I will love him and manifest Myself to him." Now perhaps looking at that your thinking goes along the lines of: it appears that John is saying that our love for Jesus, which is manifested in our keeping His commandements, seems to be prior to and the cause of God's love for us. Now, if that is what you meant to show by this verse it would be tremendously helpful if you would in addition to the verses actually give us also that interpretation so we know what it is you are trying to say by the verses. Now, if that is what you are trying to show I'd respond in two points. 1.) The IF/THEN notion here is not by any means necessarilly causal. The one who keeps my commands(loves me) will be loved by my Father. There is no notion here that it is our love/obedience which causes the Fathers love, even though such phrases (in the absence of other clear scriptures) could be interpreted that way. John is merely expressing that love of the Christ, obedience, and His love for us all go hand in hand. They are present together or absent together. 2.) Is our love/obedience the cause of God's love, or is God's love the cause of our love/obedience? And can I answer it from scripture? Well, we are quoting John, lets allow John to clearly state the answer for himself. 1Jn 4:19 We love, because He first loved us. Here we have a sentence where John is explicitly teaching which is the cause and which is the effect. So John here sheds light on the previous passage we looked at (John 14). Can we find other scripture to support this? I believe we can. Rom 9:10-13 And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac,though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad--in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls-- she was told, "The older will serve the younger." As it is written, "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated." Now look at this passage. It says here that God loved Jacob specifically with no regards for any actions he had done either good or bad. God here goes out of His way to show that his love for Jacob preceeded anything he could have done. And we can not argue foreknowledge without harming Paul's entire arguement. Paul is striving here to show that human actions in no way caused God's choice/love here. And Paul concludes from this: Rom 9:16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. I hope this is sufficient to establish that God's love precedes and is the fountain of our love, not the other way around. Also, I apologize for my last post. I still think my assertions in the last post are correct, I simply wish I had been more kind in how I asserted them. In Christ, Beja |
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435 | Will Jews make it to heaven? | Rom 9:1 | Beja | 225046 | ||
Inquisitor, You ask how I understand the verses. Well first, I think you chose miserable verses from which to defend your view. In these, Christ says, "If you love Me, keep My commandments." That is a far far far cry from saying that the means to salvation is to keep his commandments! What a silly illogical conclusion to come to! Of course we are to keep his commandments but what in any of what you just quoted makes you think He is saying this is the means of salvation? It is as silly as if I had suggested that rolling away the stone in front of Lazarus' tomb were the ordaiined means for their salvation simply because Christ told them to do it. You speak as if Christ can not give us any instruction without it being the means of our salvation. "Poor interpreting" would be far to gentle a way to describe your handling of this passage. Let me finish by going on as if you had given a more substantial verse for the idea. I can think of several. But I will put forward one in your defense. Heb 12:14 Pursue peace with all men, and the sanctification without which no one will see the Lord. Now, this verse clearly teaches that there is some degree of sanctification that without which we shall not see the Lord. How would I respond had you given this verse? I would suggest to you that everything required of us is given to us in Christ Jesus. That includes sanctification. (1 Cor 1:30). Now I do not say that to suggest that we can live however we please and then somehow Christ's sanctification is what Hebrews is referring to. But rather our sanctification is something that our ongoing union with Jesus Christ unfailingly accomplishes in us. See Romans chapters 6,7,8 for scripture on that. In other words, the sanctification that includes obedience is part of God saving us! Not part of us earning salvation! And this is how we understand all such verses. 1 John teaches us we can't continually live in sin because His seed abides in us. It is the ongoing union with Christ that produces our sanctification, and this sanctification is how we tell professing Christians from actual Christians. And then scripture is able to say things such as you must have sanctification because all those who are saved unavoidably will be GIVEN sanctification as a result of their union with Christ through FAITH. Rom 4:5,6 But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works God justifies apart from works. We are his workmentship apart from works, made for works which follow. Ephesians 2:8-10. For you to preach that our works merits anything with regards to our salvation other than simply evidencing that we were previously saved by grace is to preach an utterly false gospel, which is no gospel at all. (Gal 1:6,7) My real concern however is that you said such a thing claiming to agree with me. We have no like faith whatsoever if this is what you preach. I preach grace, you are preaching law. The two could not be further apart. In Christ, Beja |
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436 | Will Jews make it to heaven? | Rom 9:1 | Beja | 225006 | ||
Inquisitor, I've not actually said anything in this thread to be agreed with. I simply suggested a study of Romans 9 and I made no attempt to answer the question. However, something you said concerns me. You said: "Jesus' Words are pretty clear. In this Dispensation, we must obey His Commands and those of His Officially Commissioned Apostles." Following the verse you quoted it makes it sound like you believe the means of salvation is our obedience to Christ's commands. I hope that isn't what you are saying. If it is please know that I whole heartedly disagree. But perhaps I've missunderstood you. In Christ, Beja |
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437 | Will Jews make it to heaven? | Rom 9:1 | Beja | 224994 | ||
rclouviere, Romans chapter 9 is an extended answer to this very question. It might be a good study for you and you could share what you find. In Christ, Beja |
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438 | Ruling and Reigning | Gen 1:26 | Beja | 224976 | ||
Ariel, I would point to Genesis 1 for the answer. What was mankind originally to rule over? Answer: Creation. We also have indication in the gospels that this will include the angels. In Christ, Beja |
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439 | when will tribulation/rapture occur | Matt 24:29 | Beja | 224974 | ||
fundyg, Mat 24:29 "But immediately after the tribulation of those days THE SUN WILL BE DARKENED, AND THE MOON WILL NOT GIVE ITS LIGHT, AND THE STARS WILL FALL from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. Mat 24:30 "And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory. Mat 24:31 "And He will send forth His angels with A GREAT TRUMPET and THEY WILL GATHER TOGETHER His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other. There are people who answer this both ways. My particular view holds that the rapture takes place after the tribulation. And I think the above passage confirms that. See verse 21 of that chapter if there is any doubt that this is referring to the "great tribulation." In Christ, Beja |
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440 | What is "entering into God's rest?" | NT general | Beja | 224966 | ||
Ariel, For what its worth, I think you are correct and that we are indeed ultimately fated to inhabit a new earth, not heaven. In Christ, Beja |
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