Results 21 - 25 of 25
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Arnold Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Help re. Jesus' words "it is finished". | John 19:30 | Arnold | 99005 | ||
To answer, I would refer back to the beginning of John's gospel where we read about the Word. "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us . . ." (John 1:14) Throughout the Gospel we read about the Word made flesh, but now at Jesus' death the Word resides among us no longer. After his resurrection, Jesus was not "with" the disciples in the same sense as he had been, and certainly his dwelling in us by his Spirit is not the same sort of presence as his earthly career in the flesh. That earthly experience had served its purpose once Jesus offered up the supreme sacrifice. | ||||||
22 | Do we know what it says? | 1 Cor 7:31 | Arnold | 100480 | ||
Actually, the world is not standing still. The underlying presuppositions are changing, becoming more relativistic, and therefore communication becomes more difficult. The premodern worldview held that there is an absolute truth, and this truth is revealed by divine revelation. The modern worldview, born around the time of the Enlightenment and the French Revolution, held that there was still an absolute truth that held the world together, but that this truth could be discovered by reason. This lead to rationalist approaches to the Bible, which threatened to discredit it as being God's book. But now we are entering the "post-modern" era, in which even reason is frowned upon, and there are supposed to be many contradictory ways of looking at reality, each just as "true" as the other. That's why worldly scholars today do not simply build upon the rationalist tradition that was constructed over the past 200 years, but come out with new and conflicting approaches to Biblical subjects - such as who the (human) authors of the Bible really were, what the history of early Christianity really was, and so forth. In post-modernism, there is no center. Our apologetics are still fighting the battles of modernism, ignoring the whole new landscape of post-modernism. So, yes, the world is changing, and and communication is very difficult. |
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23 | Is the headcovering literal? (1Cor 11) | 1 Cor 11:5 | Arnold | 99176 | ||
The headcovering is literal, and involves no more than wearing a hat or a scarf, but whether or not you should wear one is another matter. Until recently, it was common for women to wear hats when attending church, and thus the Christian custom was the opposite of the Jewish one in which it is the men whose heads must be covered during services. I haven't seen any women's hats lately; some Eastern Orthodox women still wear scarves to church. Some understand Paul's instructions to refer to a woman who is doing something in church which a man would normally do such as leading in public prayer or prophesying - which may refer to preaching and instructing the congregation. This subject really involves matters which have become controversial in the modern church - questions as to whether men and women perform different functions within the church and how much emphasis, if any, should be placed upon male headship. I think in your personal case you should consider the practices within your own fellowship. Paul concluded his remarks on this theme by saying: "But if any man seem to be contentious, we have no such custom, neither the churches of God." (1 Cor. 11:16) In others words, 'What I've told you is what the custom of the churches is.' But in our day, most churches no longer have this custom, and it is not within our ability to change the customs which are followed. So, you can't be expected to be the only woman to wear a head covering in your church. If you want to, that's fine. But I would say you, personally, are not required to do so because the church is not following the custom. |
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24 | How should harpagmos be translated? | Phil 2:6 | Arnold | 116377 | ||
Why does the NASB translate the Greek word harpagmos (lexical form) as "a thing to be grasped"? The KJV translates it as "robbery": "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God." While the NASB is in agreement with other modern translations (NIV, RSV, NJB, ASV), it appears that the older rendering is still possible, and that there are just a few classical sources (outside the NT) which could be used for a comparative study of the word. So on what basis is a decision made to translate harpagmos one way rather than the other? |
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25 | What do we believe? | Jude 1:3 | Arnold | 117133 | ||
Why does the Creed say "he was crucified under Pontius Pilate"? It ties the story of Jesus down to a specific time in history; thus, it is not mythological. But that reminds me of the little boy who was asked to recite the Creed. He said, "I believe . . . in Pontius Pilate"! |
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