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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus meant what in Matt 10:23 16:28 | Bible general Archive 4 | DocTrinsograce | 204397 | ||
Hold on a sec... you asked a question for which you already had an answer? That's called a "leading question." Your willingness to do that, with an apparent clear conscience regarding duplicity, is an aspect of what is called ethics, a discipline of theology. You are asking about the end-times, something called eschatology, a discipline of theology. You are asking for a simple interpretation of a passage of Scripture, which is something called exegesis, a discipline of theology. You are asking for an interpretation of the Scriptures, which is something called hermeneutics, a discipline of theology. You assert that you do all of this under the auspices of love, an attribute of God's nature, something called theology proper, a discipline of theology. So, when you ask a theological question, does it really make sense to preclude theological answers? |
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2 | Jesus meant what in Matt 10:23 16:28 | Bible general Archive 4 | RC Scrolls | 204406 | ||
Nope like I said, what ever view you may hold go ahead and include it with your interpretation. And yes it is out of Love that I ask. love in Christ RC | ||||||
3 | Jesus meant what in Matt 10:23 16:28 | Bible general Archive 4 | RC Scrolls | 204407 | ||
Hey Doc Whats up. RC Thanks for the prayers. | ||||||