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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Created for heaven or hell? | 2 Pet 3:9 | proorizo | 11260 | ||
Thank you, I'm not much of a fisherman, but it's fun trying. :-) You had quoted 1 John 2:2, and I would ask have you ever considered the many uses of the word world? The Greek word for world is "kosmos" which means orderly arrangement. If Jesus is the propitiation for the whole world in the context in which you have insinuated, then why is Jesus "not praying for the world" in John 17:9? How about John 12:19 that says "the world has gone after Him", does this mean every individual that ever lived or will live went after Jesus at that time? Of course not, we should let the words speak for themselves in the context in which they are being used. Listen to the song sang in Revelation 5:9: "Worthy art Thou to take the book, and to break its seals; for Thou wast slain, and didst purchase for God with Thy blood men from every tribe and tongue and people and nation." This is the "world" that Jesus attoned for. Let me ask you, did Jesus die for the many who will live eternally in Hell? If so, Jesus died for many, many sins for no reason, and also God will require a double payment for these peoples sins, first Jesus' payment, then their own payment which will be eternal seperation. I will let you think on these things and will wait for a response. Thanks again for taking the time to write. proorizo |
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2 | Created for heaven or hell? | 2 Pet 3:9 | Morant61 | 11311 | ||
Greetings Proorizo! Like many others who have responded to your posts, I am not sure why we need to go over the same points time and time again. But since you insist to claim that "world" in 1 John 2:2 only refers to the elect, let me address that point. The following is a quote from one of my previous posts on this issue: ************************** My short answer to your question would simply be this: If John wanted to say that, he could have very simply - "Not only did is He the propitiation for our sins, but He is the propitiation for the sins of all believers." He choose not to say that. Further, there is nothing in the context that would allow that interpretation. Furthermore, the word "world" is itself qualified by the word "whole." Is there any place in John's writtings where "world" only refers to believers? Is there any place in all of Scripture, were "world" only refers to believers? In my view, the answer to both of these questions is no. In order to interpret "world", consider how John uses the word "world" in the rest of his writings. a) In John 1:10, John says that the "world" did not recognize Christ. b) In John 1:29, Christ is the Lamb who takes away the sins of the world. c) In John 7:7, the "world" hates Christ. d) In John 8:23, the "world" is contrasted with heaven. e) In John 10:36, Christ is sent into the "world." f) In John 12:25, it is the one who hates his life in this "world" who will inherit eternal life. g) In John 13:1, it is the time for Jesus to leave this "world." h) In John 14:17, the "world" cannot accept the Spirit of Truth. i) In 1 John 2:15-16, we are commanded not to love the world. In fact, the word "world" is used a total of 17 times in 1 John alone. In every other occurance of the word "world" in 1 John, it either refers to the physical world or the opposition of the world to Christ. Therefore, in light of John's usage of the word "world" throughout his writings and in 1 John in particular, to add the word "believers" would be an example of forcing the verse to say what our theology demands it to say, rather than letting the verse inform our theology. I appreciate your response. However, I don't see that the case can be made for limiting the word "world" to only believers when John never ever uses the word in that way in any of his writings. ********************************* There simply isn't anywhere in any of John's writings where "world" refers to believers. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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