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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is Psalm ref. verse different? | Heb 10:5 | Makarios | 12086 | ||
Greetings Appleseed! In order to answer your question, I had to rely on a few resources... "Sacrifice This quotation follows the LXX, with a minor variation, instead of the Hebrew text, as do many of the several hundred quotations of the O.T. found in the N.T. Quotations are used in various ways: (1) Invariably the authors attribute unqualified divine authority to the O.T., in some instances basing their argument on one word (Mat 2:15; 22:43-45; John 10:34; 19:36-37; Rom 4:3; etc.). (2) The Septuagint is usually employed, as it is here in Hebrews, in the same way as an English translation may be quoted today (Mat 1:23; cp. Isa 7:14 in LXX). (3) Variations in quotations may originate in the desire to translate the original Hebrew more accurately than the LXX (1 Cor 14:21; cp. Isa 28:11-12 in LXX and Hebrew). (4) Many quotations were not intended to be verbatim, but are paraphrases designed to bring out the meaning or particular application (Gal 4:30; cp. Gen 21:10). (5) Some quotations are a summary of O.T. truth taken from several passages, giving the sense if not the exact words of the original (Rom 11:26-27; cp. Isa 59:20-21 and Isa 27:9). (6) In some cases the quotation is only an allusion and is not intended to be an exact quotation (Rom 9:27; cp. Isa 10:22-23). And (7) the Holy Spirit who inspired the O.T. was free to reword a quotation just as a human author may restate his own writings in other words without impugning the accuracy of the original statement (Mat 2:6; cp. Mic 5:2). The doctrine of plenary inspiration requires only that revelation be expressed without error." (New Scofield Study Bible) "a body You have prepared for Me. Psalm 40:6 reads, "My ears you have opened." This does not represent a significant alteration in the meaning of the psalm, as indicated by the fact that the writer quoted the LXX version of the Heb. idiom, which was an accurate representation for Greek readers. The Greek translators regarded the Heb. words as a figure of speech, in which a part of something signified the whole, i.e., the hollowing out of ears was part of the total work of fashioning a human body. And ears were selected as the part to emphasize because they were symbols of obedience as the organ of the reception of God's Word and will (cf. 1 Sam. 15:22). Christ needed a body in order to offer Himself as the final sacrifice (Heb 2:14)." (The MacArthur NKJV Study Bible, page 1913) I hope these help.. --Nolan |
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2 | Why is Psalm ref. verse different? | Heb 10:5 | Appleseed | 12119 | ||
Hi Nolan: Are you saying, figuratively, in the case of a human body, the ear is the receiver. When God spoke things into being, the thing He spoke too, received the Word and it came into being. The ear being symbolic of the human body? |
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3 | Why is Psalm ref. verse different? | Heb 10:5 | Makarios | 12151 | ||
Hello Appleseed! Yes, I would say that this would be correct, that it is speaking 'figuratively' where the ear is the organ that 'hears' the Word of God and therefore 'comes into being' by receiving life from the spoken Word of God.. This is amazing when applied to our spirits, since we are made alive by Jesus Christ and by hearing God's Holy Word! Excellent observation Appleseed! Nolan |
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