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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | can we be sure the Bible is valid? | 2 Tim 3:16 | joehelt | 148903 | ||
Thank you all for the welcome and the answers. They are all valid and solve a question. I think, however, that I did not make my question very clear. My question revolves around this: When Paul wrote to Timothy to say that "all scripture is God-breathed..." he couldn't have been referring to his own letters, the Gospels and all of the other letters and books in the New Testament. How then can we attribute the NT Canon to be valid as scripture and "profitable for teaching, for reproof..." I have done a little research into the Council of Nicea and have read a couple of books on the subjects of 'lost christianities and scriptures' I am also currently taking a class on heresies in the early church. I can see why many of these documents are not and were not used as Scripture, but I cannot figure out how/why a new canon was created. The weird thing is that during my heresy class, the majority of the text I use to prove documents heretical in class discussion comes from the NT. I am just looking for some evidence to show me why I can use NT text to verify my belief in Christ. -joe |
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2 | can we be sure the Bible is valid? | 2 Tim 3:16 | kalos | 148912 | ||
As they do the rest of the Scriptures Speaking of this as he does in all of his letters. There are some things in those [epistles of Paul] that are difficult to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist and misconstrue to their own utter destruction, just as [they distort and misinterpret] the rest of the Scriptures. (AMPLIFIED 2 Peter 3:16) joehelt: You raise some good questions about the inspiration and authority of the NT books. These are questions all of us need to be able to answer so that we can always be prepared to make a defense to anyone who asks us for a reason for the hope that is in us (1 Peter 3:15). You write: 'When Paul wrote to Timothy to say that "all scripture is God-breathed..." he couldn't have been referring to his own letters, the Gospels and all of the other letters and books in the New Testament.' What do you mean by that? And how did you come to that conclusion? Why could'nt Paul be referring to his own letters and other books in the NT? Second Peter 3:16 'is one of the most clear-cut statements in the Bible to affirm that THE WRITINGS OF PAUL ARE SCRIPTURE. Peter's testimony is that Paul wrote Scripture, but the false teachers distorted it. The NT apostles were aware that they spoke and wrote the Word of God (1 Thess. 2:13) as surely as did the OT prophets. Peter realized that the NT writers brought the divine truth that completed the Bible (1 Peter 1:10-12)' (MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997. Emphasis added.) Grace and peace to you, Kalos |
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