Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | 2 Tim 2:15 | Radioman2 | 80127 | ||
Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? - - - - - - - - - - 'If you think you're on safe theological ground because of a pet verse, better look twice. Simple prooftexting has its perils.' - - - - - - - - - - 'Is baptism necessary for salvation? Is it necessary to be water baptized after one's profession of faith before one can receive the gift of forgiveness and new life through regeneration? Or is baptism a proper act of obedience after one becomes a Christian? 'In the first case the order would be faith, then baptism, resulting in salvation. In the second case the order would be faith, resulting in salvation, followed by baptism. 'Verses seem to support both sides. In Acts 2:38 we read, "And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'" If the repentant believer is baptized "for the forgiveness of sins," then repentance and belief are not enough. The order here appears to be faith, then baptism, resulting in salvation. 'This verse seems very straightforward. To some, simply quoting it is enough. The problem comes when one flips over a few pages to Acts 10:44-48. (...) 'Notice what's happening. Peter preaches the Gospel to Cornelius and his household. In the midst of Peter's sermon, the Holy Spirit falls on those listening and they manifest spiritual gifts. 'This is irrefutable evidence to Peter that these Gentiles have "received the Holy Spirit just as [he] did." Other verses make it clear that possessing the Holy Spirit in the New Testament sense is proof of salvation (see Ephesians 1:13-14 and Romans 8:9). 'After these Gentiles are regenerated, Peter announces it is appropriate for them to be baptized. The order in Acts 10 is faith, resulting in salvation, followed by baptism. 'Here's the problem. Apparently Acts 2 teaches that salvation comes after water baptism, and Acts 10 indicates it can come before. This is a contradiction. Unless these passages are harmonized, merely asserting one verse against another actually does violence to the authority of God's Word. 'This is when we must ask our question: Are either of the passages equivocal? That is, are there any legitimate alternative readings? 'The Acts 10 passage seems completely inflexible in its meaning. The sequence of events leaves no question (though I'm open to suggestions) that the order is faith/regeneration/baptism. Peter's response is unmistakable. 'Further, when the Jews later take issue with Peter about his involvement with Gentiles, he simply recounted the event and they were satisfied (Acts 11:1-18). In this passage regeneration clearly follows faith, not baptism: 'If God therefore gave to them the same gift as He gave to us also after believing in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God's way?" And when they heard this, they quieted down, and glorified God, saying, "Well then, God has granted to the Gentiles also the repentance that leads to life." (Acts 11:17-18) 'Notice baptism isn't even mentioned here, only the salient details of regeneration: repentance, faith, and salvation. By all appearances, Acts 10 is unequivocal. Baptism isn't necessary for salvation. 'What about in Acts 2? Is it possible this passage means something different than it appears to at first? On closer inspection the answer is yes. The key is in the grammar. 'In Acts 2, the command to repent is in the plural, as is the reference to those who receive the forgiveness of sins (i.e., "All of you repent so all of you can receive forgiveness"). The command to be baptized, however, is in the singular (i.e., "Each of you should be baptized"). 'This makes it clear that repentance, not baptism, leads to salvation, since an individual's baptism cannot cause the salvation of the entire group. Individual (singular) baptisms do not result in corporate (plural) salvation. 'As it turns out, then, the phrase "for the forgiveness of sins" modifies repentance, not baptism. A more precise rendering might be, "Let all of you repent so all of you can receive forgiveness, and then each who has should be baptized." 'If there is any question about which translation of Acts 2:38 is appropriate, Acts 10 and 11 give us the answer. Clearly, Peter's Gentiles were not getting baptized in order to bring about their salvation. They were baptized as a result of salvation. The clear (unequivocal) teaching in Acts 10 and 11 informs the ambiguous (equivocal) nature of Acts 2:38.' - - - - - - - - - - To read the entire ariticle, go to: (http://www.str.org/free/solid_ground/SG9909.htm) |
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2 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | 2 Tim 2:15 | jervinj | 80206 | ||
The usual order is repentence, water baptism, and baptism of the Holy Ghost. But the order does not matter. I know of a couple of people who received the Holy Ghost before water baptism. As to whether water baptism is necessary, consider that Jesus did not begin His ministry until He was baptized. What does baptism mean? It is the death and resurrection. When you go down into the water you die; when you come back out you are born again a new man. Salvation can not be complete without water baptism. John 3:3-5 | ||||||
3 | Baptism-What Does the Bible Teach? | 2 Tim 2:15 | BradK | 80253 | ||
Dear jervinj, I'd like to comment on a couple of points you raised, while at the same time avoiding a debate on this topic. What was the purpose of Christs' baptism? It surely was not for salvation,..."but to fulfill all righteouness." ( Matt. 3:15) As you state that,"Salvation can not be complete without water baptism", is this not then a work? What of the gospel clearly proclaimed by Paul in 1 Cor. 15:1-4 and the undeniable "by faith" passages in Eph. 2:8-9, and Titus 3:5? The context of John 3 does not, in my estimation warrant "water baptism": "Jesus answered and said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” Nicodemus *said to Him, “How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born, can he?” Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." My understanding is that verse 6 is the clear response to vs. 3-5: 6“That which is born of the flesh(natural birth)is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit(Spiritual birth) is spirit." What do you think? Speaking The Truth In Love, BradK |
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