Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Romans 2:14-15 commonly mutilated? | 1 Cor 2:14 | Reighnskye | 133413 | ||
I have many times heard a common mutilation of scripture within the organized religion, which is perhaps solely based upon a misapplication of the following scripture text out of Romans 2:12-16. Romans 2 12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. 14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus. (NAS95) - The common mutilation/misapplication of this particular text conveys the idea that those who never hear the Gospel of Jesus (in their own native language) will be saved solely through the state of their own conscience, apart from the Gospel message. (For example, the aborigine in Africa, where they don't have cars, indoor plumbing, lightbulbs, or bibles.) Romans 2:12-16 (verses 14 and 15 particularly) is often said to refer to people who have never heard the Gospel message of Jesus. However, I suggest that this is the farthest thing from the truth. I suggest that the text rather conveys that the Gentile believer lacks a knowledge of the Old Testement Law of Moses (the Ten Commandments and such), and therefore can yet be saved without a knowledge of Jusaism that was typically only had by the Jews. However, the text does not say that Gentiles don't need to hear the Gospel of Jesus in order to be saved. It rather simply says that exposure to the Law of Moses is not necessary. Please reread the text and notice the many references to the Old Testament Law of Moses as opposed to the New Testament Gospel of Christ. In other words, the Gentile need only hear the Gospel of Jesus, without reference to the Old Testament Law of Moses and the Ten Commandments, in order to be saved. A knowledge of Old Testament Judaism is unnecessary for purposes of salvation, as Gentiles were not commonly afforded that knowledge, as the Jews were. Paul later seems to reinforce the necessity of the Gospel message for Gentiles in Romans 10:14-17: Romans 10 14 How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher? 15 How will they preach unless they are sent? Just as it is written, "HOW BEAUTIFUL ARE THE FEET OF THOSE WHO BRING GOOD NEWS OF GOOD THINGS!" 16 However, they did not all heed the good news; for Isaiah says, "LORD, WHO HAS BELIEVED OUR REPORT?" 17 So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ. (NAS95) Although God's voice through the Law of Moses (and even the creation itself) be wholly resisted and denied, nonetheless the word of Christ is yet capable of inspiring faith in darkened and ignorant unbelievers. - Comments? True? False? - Blessings, Reighnskye |
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2 | Romans 2:14-15 commonly mutilated? | 1 Cor 2:14 | DocTrinsograce | 133414 | ||
I've never heard of the interpretation you are suggesting. Paul makes it quite clear we are all condemned. There are no people with perfectly clear consciences -- no matter how ignorant. For they are accused by their own conscience -- and if any offend in the least of the law, they offend in it all. Paul is explaining how we are all in the same boat. Salvation is not a matter of doing more good things than bad. That is autosoterism, regardless of how many groups -- organized or otherwise -- think that way. | ||||||
3 | Romans 2:14-15 commonly mutilated? | 1 Cor 2:14 | Reighnskye | 133425 | ||
Doc, When you say that you've never heard of the interpretation that I'm suggesting, what specifically in my statements are you referring to? I do agree with you that Paul makes it extremely clear, throughout the book of Romans, that we are all condemned. It just doesn't require a knowledge of the Law of Moses, to come to this conclusion, as per the verse reference below. - Romans 2 12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; - Here we see that Gentiles sin apart from a knowledge of the Law, and that Jews sin under a knowledge of the Law. Yet every conscience stands condemned with or without the Law of Moses (consisting of the Ten Commandments and such.) I have never anywhere personally suggested that anyone has a clear conscience, but rather I have heard such a thing suggested in various church circles that I've encountered. Churches with 5000 to 20,000 plus members in Illinois. I view their doctrine as well nigh heretical. Nonetheless, the doctrine is taught by the largest Protestant congregation in the entire United States, as located in Illinois. Many other churches here have followed suit. Conversely, I am myself suggesting that Paul teaches that a knowledge of the Law of Moses is not necessary to be saved, insofar as the Gentiles of Paul's time are ignorant of the teachings of Moses anyway. What is indispensable for salvation, however, is the recieving of the Gospel of Christ. Although knowledge of the Law of Moses may have been integral for the spiritual conversion of the Jews, it was wholly unnecessary for the conversion of ignorant Gentiles. The ignorance of the Gentile is not in regards to their blemished conscience, but rather in regards to the written Ten Commandments issued by Moses. - John 1 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. (NAS95) - Blessings, Reighnskye |
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4 | Romans 2:14-15 commonly mutilated? | 1 Cor 2:14 | Hank | 133426 | ||
Reighnskye: If this doctrine which you report as being taught by certain large religious bodies in Illinois be true -- and I don't for a moment suggest it is true -- it renders Jesus' command in Matthew 28:19 meaningless and His claim in John 14:6 false. You suggest the doctrine comes near to being heresy. I would say it goes beyond heresy and rises to blasphemy. --Hank | ||||||