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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why didn't he say Jews and Gentiles? | Rom 1:14 | Sandman | 14782 | ||
Dear Steve, For the meaning of the word "barbarian," check out Acts 28:2, where Paul talks about his hospitality while ashore on Malta. The NASB uses the word "natives" which literally means "barbarians." The islanders on Malta were of Phoenician ancestry. The term "barbarian" is used in the sense of "one who is not Greek." Now, why did Paul choose the categories "Greek" and "non-Greek"? The answer lies in the background information to Romans. Paul wrote Romans at the end of his 3rd missionary journey just before returning to Jerusalem (Acts 20:3, Romans 15:25). His missionary journeys found him all over parts of Macedonia, Galatia, Achaia, Lycia, etc. (Acts 13-28). At the present time, these were predominantly Greek cultures. So up until this point, Paul had been dealing with the Greek culture. Now Romans 1:14 - "I am obligated both to Greeks and to non-Greeks..." The Romans would culturally associate themselves with the "non-Greek" group. After all, their civilization (which was peaking at the time of the New Testament) had replaced the Greek Civilization as the premier civilization in the world. And that is why in verse 15 Paul continues by saying, "That is why I am so eager to preach the gospel also to those of you who are at Rome." Because, up until now, he had dealt with Greeks. The "wise and the foolish" refers to the educated and the uneducated. Up until Christ, the Pharisees and Saducees had implicitely forced a silent rule that only the educated could truly know God's law and therefore could truly know God (Matthew 23:1-6). Christ changed this perception, by ministering to the uneducated "sinners" (Mark 2:17) and criticizing the educated (Luke 11:42-52). Paul no doubt encountered this same discrimination based on knowledge when he ministered to people. Also, in the height of their civilization, the Romans might have the notion to consider themselves very wise, and Paul could be using the term foolish to set up his later argument that the Romans, in their culture of knowledge and intellect, were unbelievably uneducated (Romans 3:11). Sandman |
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2 | Why didn't he say Jews and Gentiles? | Rom 1:14 | Makarios | 14815 | ||
Excellent response, Sandman! :) Whenever I think of your Screen Name, a certain old song pops into my head.. :) --Nolan |
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3 | Why didn't he say Jews and Gentiles? | Rom 1:14 | Sandman | 14982 | ||
Thanks Nolan, I got the nickname from that very song when I was younger... Sandman |
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4 | ... | Rom 1:14 | Thomas8 | 226100 | ||
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5 | ... | Rom 1:14 | Searcher56 | 226105 | ||
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