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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does "gods" mean here? | John 10:34 | K80 | 47706 | ||
What is being refered to here by the term "gods"? How does it apply? |
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2 | What does "gods" mean here? | John 10:34 | prayon | 47729 | ||
Greetings K80, In response to the discussion that Jesus was having with the Jews at the temple he referred them to Psa 82:6 "I say, You are gods, children of the most high, all of you..." (See also Exo 4:16; 71). He was referring to the judges of Isreal. They were called gods because they represented God in executing judgement. Jesus pointed out that God has always delegated Hes power and authority to chosen members of His people in such a way that they could be called "gods" in their own right. The "gods" of Psa 82 appear to be unjust leaders who neglected to uphold righteousness. Here He is again referring to the judges of Isreal. prayon |
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3 | What does "gods" mean here? | John 10:34 | Ray | 47745 | ||
Hi prayon, A typo correction is in order for those who look for your good references. Exodus 4 doesn't have 71 verses so you evidently meant to type Ex 7:1. Thanks again for these very appropriate verses. Being the person interested in capitalization as I am, I had previously studied this verse to determine if the "I said" is talking about God and thus should be capitalized. I, however, went with the literal meaning in the margin of my study bible where it said, Lit. "I, on my part". Thus, I would have you consider saying "Here he is again" rather than "Here He is again referring to the judges of Israel." Forgive my fetish for capitalization but I think that it is important to note the things that are clear when accurate words are used. Your references bring forward a study of the difference between a Prophet and a prophet as well as the difference between God and a god. Let me type out the previous verse also, where God says, Exodus 4:15, "And you [Moses] are to speak to him [Aaron] and put the words in his [Aaron] mouth; and I, even I, will be with your mouth and his mouth, and I will teach you what you are to do. v16 Moreover, he shall speak for you to the people; and it shall some about that he shall be as a mouth for you, and you shall be as God to him. v.17 And you shall take in your hand this staff, with which you [as God] shall perform the signs." John 10:34 in regular type, "Jesus answered them, "Has it not been written in your Law, 'I said, you are gods'? v35 "If he called them gods, to whom the word of (God) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), v36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son/ of God'?" Here Jesus is saying that He is being charged of blasphemy because He said that He was the Son of God. Not the son of God, not a god, not a man, and He did not even say that He is Gods [YOU ARE GODS]. Look at the various versions of the Scriptures and see if we can come to a definitive answer here. King James, John 10:33, "The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy, and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God." For this version, especially, you must decide for yourself what should be capitalized. NASB, John 10:33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God." Here the NASB is showing by the lower case "man" the charge that is being made. Jesus was just a man. Or, Jesus was just a god. NKJ, John 10:33, "The Jews answered Him, saying, 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God." Here is the rendering that I personally would go with for accuracy of capitalization. It is consistent in making all the pronouns the same and thus less confusing. It states it as I believe it. With the rendering of "man" in the NASB it makes it confusing because it cannot read "being a man, make yourself/out to be God." It brings up the question that I have been asking while on this forum, "Does Jesus have to be thought of as a man?" For after the resurrection we know that He is God and that He came in the likeness of men and was indeed a Man, the Prophet who was to come. When one looks at Exodus 4:16 we see how these Jews could look at Moses as a Prophet and indeed be his disciples as Jesus said that they were. Aaron looked at Moses as God to him. Verse 16b, "and you shall be as God to him." Exodus 7:1, "Then the Lord said to Moses, "See, I make you AS God to Pharoah, and your brother shall be your prophet." The word prophet is a good one for a word study. I am now in my studies being led to consider how John the baptizer and Jesus were considered to be Prophets. Prayon, for the consideration of righteousness, and the contrast of God and men look at Exodus 9:27, "Then Pharaoh sent for Moses and Aaron, and said to them, "I have sinned this time; the Lord is the *Righteous *One, and I and my people are the wicked ones." From the heart, Ray |
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