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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why was Joseph substituted with "father" | Luke 2:33 | Ramon | 225803 | ||
Why was Joseph substituted with "father" in this verse (Luke 2:33); in the most literal-translated bible known to us? Thank you. Ramon |
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2 | Why was Joseph substituted with "father" | Luke 2:33 | DocTrinsograce | 225807 | ||
Hi, Ramon... Welcome to the forum! I find that the word father is also used in the ESV, RSV, ASV, and HCSB. Interestingly so do the Latin Vulgate and Wycliffe New Testament -- both of which were extant, of course, during the translation authorized by King James. However, the Geneva Bible (1599) uses the name "Joseph." I suspect one of two possibilities: (1) the original Greek manuscripts used might be different; or (2) the Geneva and KJV translators were seeking to emphasize Christ's virgin birth. I do not believe we have a person in the forum who has expertise in textual criticism. However, we do have several that read the Greek. Perhaps one of them might be able to shed some light on the question. Meanwhile, may I ask what prompted the question? Did you discover this difference yourself? If so, which translations were you using? In Him, Doc |
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3 | I would like to know what was the origin | Luke 2:33 | Ramon | 225809 | ||
I am into using the NASB, but it was brought to my attention that NASB is not the most literal, since it changed the article. Doesn't this confuse those who don't know that God is the Father of our Lord, and not Joseph? That is for those that are new born believers. | ||||||
4 | I would like to know what was the origin | Luke 2:33 | Makarios | 225813 | ||
Greetings Ramon! Welcome to StudyBibleForum.com. Scripure makes explicitly clear that Joseph is only the legal father of Jesus (Matthew 1:1-16; Luke 1:27; 2:21-24), and that Jesus was truly conceived by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 1:18,20-25; Luke 1:35). As far as the word "father" in Luke 2:33, the Greek word is 'pater' (Strongs G3962), meaning "father, parent." According to www.blueletterbible.org, the Greek word 'pater' appears 419 times in the King James Version: rendered as "Father" 268 times in the KJV and "father" 150 times. Some sample passages for each: 'father' - Matthew 2:22; Luke 1:73; 'Father' - Matthew 5:45; 6:6; Luke 2:49. But the question as far as if the Greek actually has the word 'pater' (as it appears in the NASB) or the Greek word 'Ioseph' ("Joseph" - Strongs G2501), is truly a question of differing Biblical manuscripts, as pointed out by the notes in The NET Bible (http://net.bible.org/bible.php): "[3] tc Most mss" ... "read "Joseph," but in favor of the reading" ... "(Jo pathr autou, "his father") is both external" ... "and internal evidence. Internally, the fact that Mary is not named at this point and that "Joseph" is an obviously motivated reading, intended to prevent confusion over the virgin conception of Christ, argues strongly for" (pater) "as the authentic reading here. See also the tc note on "parents" in 2:43." Therefore, the NASB translators, along with the NIV, NET Bible, NRSV, HCSB, ESV, Douay-Rheims (1582), The Amplified Bible, New American Bible, ASV (1901), ISV, 1889 Darby Bible, 1912 Weymouth, and the Latin Vulgate all agree with 'pater' as the correct manuscript preference of translation. It is my belief that such a choice would not in any way diminish the NASB's esteem as the most literal translation on the market today. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Luke 2:33 | Author | ||
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Searcher56 | ||
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Hank | ||
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brooks4au | ||
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Ramon | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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Ramon | ||
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Makarios |