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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is speaking in Luke 19:27? | Luke 19:27 | JK123 | 217953 | ||
Hi Guys, I am very confused about Luke 19:27...is this Jesus speaking in the first person directly to the people? Or is this "the nobleman" speaking within the confines of the parable? In the NASB, it appears that the parable ends in v.25 and that Jesus is speaking directly in v.26 and v.27 In other versions like the NIV, they clearly attribute vs. 26-27 to the "nobleman" in the parable, and not to Jesus in the first person? But vs. 26 is clearly a direct saying from Jesus found in many other places in the NT? I am confused! Thanks So Much for your help God Bless Jim |
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2 | Who is speaking in Luke 19:27? | Luke 19:27 | DocTrinsograce | 217955 | ||
Hi, Jim... Calvin comments on this verse as follows: "n this second part, He appears to glance principally at the Jews, but includes all who in the absence of their master, determine to revolt. Now Christ’s intention was, not only to terrify such persons by threatening an awful punishment, but also to keep His own people in faithful subjection; for it was no small temptation to see the kingdom of God scattered by the treachery and rebellion of many. In order then that we may preserve our composure in the midst of troubles, Christ informs us that He will return, and that at His coming He will punish wicked rebellion." In Him,Doc |
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3 | Clarification - speaking in Luke 19:27 | Luke 19:27 | JK123 | 217972 | ||
Hi Guys, I thank you all for your answers and I apologize because I don't think I was clear with my question. Let me clear up what I do understand. I certainly understand that the words are physically coming out of the mouth of Jesus for the entire sequence. I also understand the meaning behind the verses whether they are direct speech or part of the parable. The meaning is quite clear to me. What I find significant is whether or not Luke 19:27 represents a direct commandement from Jesus to His listeners, or whether it is a commandment coming from the "nobleman" in the parable. If it comes as direct from Jesus, It would be the only place in the entire gospels where Jesus advocates His listeneres to use violence on His behalf. what makes the sequence so confusing is that verse 26 is clearly not part of the parable, that had to be direct speech from Jesus to his listeners (at least in my opinion) But translations like the NIV attribute it to the "nobleman", and not directly to Jesus as a direct saying to His listeners If Jesus continues on in V.27 with direct speech to His listeners, He is giving a very serious order, and again, one that is unique for the gospels. Thanks Again Guys Any help you could give would be greatly appreciated God Bless Jim |
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4 | Clarification - speaking in Luke 19:27 | Luke 19:27 | azurelaw | 217975 | ||
dup. qtn. | ||||||