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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | His Spirit or Moses'? | Ps 106:33 | Ray | 41360 | ||
The literary style of the NASB and NKJ often confuses the reader about whether a word is to be regarded as Deity or not. A case in point is Psalm 106:33. Psalm 106:33, NASB, "Because they were rebellious against His Spirit, He spoke rashly with his lips." See Amplified above, "For they provoked [Moses'] spirit, so that he spoke unadvisedly with his lips." Psalm 106:33, NKJ, "Because they rebelled against His Spirit, So that he spoke rashly with his lips." My question, then, is did they rebell against His Spirit or Moses' spirit? Also,I would like a Hebrew scholar tell me why verses 29 and 32 need to insert an "understood" Him in italics. From the heart, Ray |
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2 | His Spirit or Moses'? | Ps 106:33 | Scribe | 41381 | ||
Interesting. KJV says. so that it went ill with Moses for their sakes: 33 Because they provoked his spirit, so that he spake unadvisedly with his lips. But the fact is they provoked God's Spirit and Moses' | ||||||
3 | His Spirit or Moses'? | Ps 106:33 | Ray | 41391 | ||
Hi Scribe, I too think that it could be understood as fact that they were rebels who provoked God's Spirit and Moses' spirit. Verse 29 says that "they provoked Him to anger" and verse 32 says that "They also provoked Him to wrath". I would like to hear from that person who is knowledgeable in the Hebrew to tell us if the pronouns were in the manuscripts or whether it is His Spirit that they were rebelling against. I think that it is clear that Moses spoke rashly with his lips in verse 33. From the heart, Ray |
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