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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | 1-2steve | 148118 | ||
Symbolically, the cup was God's wrath about to be poured out on His Son. | ||||||
2 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | DocTrinsograce | 148126 | ||
Hi, Phylis and/or Steve... That particular phrase ("cup of wrath") only appears twice in the Bible, Rev 14:10 and 16:19. However, the phrase "cup of fury" appears three times, Is 51:17, 22, and Jer 25:15. However, the idiom seems to appear in other places as well, for example, Psa 75:8. You might find some of the best explanation of such passages in a good commentary. I'd recommend Dr. John Gill's "Exposition of the Entire Bible." You can find it at http://www.freegrace.net/gill/ In Him, Doc |
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3 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | 1-2steve | 148182 | ||
Hi, Phyllis and/or Doc, I went to Matt.26:39 and copied just about a paragraph of what John Gill's commentary says. It's interesting that he uses both wrath and fury inclusive in this cup. Here's what he stated: "If it be possible, let this cup pass from me; meaning not only the hour, as it is called in Mark, the present season and time of distress, and horror; but all his future sufferings and death, which were at hand; together with the bearing the sins of his people, the enduring the curse of the law, and the wrath of God, all which were ingredients in, and made up this dreadful bitter cup, this cup of fury". But, (and I may be wrong) the cup represents the coming death that He knew was coming. The Expositors Bible Commentary states that the word "cup" (GK 4539) is regularly used as a metaphor of punishment and judgement (and they used all 5 references you gave.),and that Jesus prayed that God's wrath would be removed. But of course we all know the end result. He died. So He drank the cup of wrath that we deserve, so that we won't have to face eternal judgement. But like I said, I may be wrong. Acts 17:11. I don't know if this helps or created confusion, but it is a good question and discussion. Thanks for letting me partake in it! In Christ, steve |
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4 | What was in the cup symbolically? | Mark | DocTrinsograce | 148191 | ||
Hi, Steve... Thank you for your comments! Although the death of Christ was integral to the atonement, I've always thought that His statement "It is finished" demonstrated that the Wrath of God had, at that point, been appeased. In other words, by the time of that statement, Christ had suffered the equivalent of an eternity in Hell for each of His own. We, of course, only clearly see the physical suffering; but I think that was nothing compared to the suffering we could not see. In Him, Doc |
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