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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | time? | Ecclesiastes | Jesusman | 37810 | ||
Hello, In the Hebrew, the verbs are formed in various "stems". These are similar in function to the Greek tenses. In matters of prophecy, a majority of the verbs used are in a past tense with implications in the future. Hebrew doesn't have a future tense like the Greek. They do have one that functions similar to the Greek aorist tense. IN the Aorist, it is past tense most of the time, but under certain circumstances it can carry a future meaning. This is how the Hebrew stem in question functions. I would like to give the name of this stem, but I don't have my hebrew materials handy. I think it's the Pu'al stem, but I'm not certain. I'll look it up. That's the grammerical side. Now, theologically, God has told the prophets that these events will happen at one time or another. With that, and the nature of God that He cannot lie, It is only fitting to place the prophecies in a past tense. In the eyes of God, these events have already happened, as it were. Jesusman |
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2 | time? | Ecclesiastes | John Reformed | 37833 | ||
Thanks Bruce, The first paragraph was a bit over my head, but I think I caught the drift of it. If I understand the second paragraph (the theological side) it means past present and future are all the same to God. He knows what is to take place because it has always been. Whew! God really is soverign. Thanks Again, John |
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3 | time? | Ecclesiastes | Jesusman | 37840 | ||
Hello, Don't worry. It took me a while to grasp it also. When I started to look at it from a perspective similar to God's, then it began to make sense. Jesusman |
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