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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: dr_emery Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Which question? | Col 3:17 | dr_emery | 1110 | ||
Thank you for your patience! I love the opportunity afforded here, but I am afraid I will have to become more familiar with the proceedings !! Well, in recent casual conversation with a friend, it was proposed that nothing had changed in the concept of Judaism from the Mosaic Law period to the Christian era ( starting with the teachings of the Christ )and following, into the Christian era with the adaptation of principles from the Mosaic Law, principles that would eventually ear mark Christians. Use of the attention to the 'name' of God being rather basic to the model prayer in Matt..... in that all actions were prescribed first in the name of a monotheism, Jehovah. True, tradition later demanded that that name, as represented by the tetagrammaton, not be pronounced. However, this does not exclude the fact that JC was a Jew, that, altho he had authority to generate aspects of a new Theology, if you will, still he was remanded to use, respect, recognize, the inconsonant YHWH. [ Deuteronomy attests to the inclusion of monotheistic adherance to the direction under edict of the one God Jehovah.]Therefore, would JC or Paul have excluded baptism or any other function of 'The Way' from recognition of this name YHWH ? or suggested performance of some act w/o continued respect to this name ? or lowered the use of that name to a multiplicity of personage, adjoining it to Jesus ? Beyond that point, and something I asked about earlier, which was brought up in this dialogue I had recently is this : Jesus transliterated from J(Y)eshua translates to Jah is salvation. Since, during his young manhood, and during his ministry, he had to maintain a monotheistic posture, under Law, as a Jew, would JC have excluded baptism in the literal name of the God that he knew under Law as a Jew ? Just pondering the thoughts. And wondering if there are substantial answers to this line of thought. Respectfully ........ |
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2 | Any takers? | Col 3:17 | dr_emery | 1105 | ||
Dear Happy, As I have said, I am new to this forum. The open folder indicators seem to direct the principle question to one series of answers. Mine was meant to interject another possibility : Could baptism in the 'fuller' sense indicate that there was a progression of office in using a name ? that to baptize in the name of JC indicated a higher source that would consecrate an individual ? and that the holy spirit acted as a force rather than a personage in the application of that consecration -- esp'ly since the Grk rendering indicates an 'applied' gender, rather than gender to indicate a definite article representing a personage. Thus, in the name of JC would allow intersession between the head of the Christian congregation and the God and Father to whom thanks was being rendered ? Again, if I am using this forum incorrectly, forgive me. I would like to resolve my feelings. Thanks ! |
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3 | Jewish Baptism in YHWH? | Col 3:17 | dr_emery | 1086 | ||
I am new to this forum. However, this question, which goes unanswered at this point, would do much to solidify my belief in the Heb rendering for the name of the Son of God, which indicates salvation resting in Jehovah. This has been proposed to me in a recent informal discussion. What might be an answer to this particularly pertinent query ? | ||||||