Results 41 - 48 of 48
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: ischus Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | Explaination of 1 Cor 11:10 | 1 Cor 11:10 | ischus | 114901 | ||
rsmith77: First of all, although Paul uses a theological argument here, the majority of this passage must be interpreted from a very cultural point of view; in other words, this statement is a result of Paul's first century theology. When we understand that, it may become slightly easier to interpret this. 1)v10 begins with "for this reason." This clause should be taken as pointing backwards to the previous verses, not forward to the subsequent remarks. Paul speaks about women with "authority" on their heads in light of creation- God, man, women...the line of authority. Therefore, women need to have a covering to show their submission to the authority to both man and more importantly to God. 2) "on account of the angels" is were it gets tricky. Hooker, in "New Testament Studies," has a good explanation here. Since angels were believed to be watching over and/or participating in the assembly, the rightful respect for the order of creation must be upheld. An alternative view is that Paul is seen as refering to Gen.6 where the sons of God and daughters of men are described as bearing offspring. Paul, as well as most other Christians in the first century, saw the sons of God as being angels. But, since they have sinned against God in this act, they are now bad angels...of Satan. Women need protection from these type of assaults, according to Paul, and so they need to be under the veil (authority) of God and men at this time of vulnerabiblty. 3) Contrary to contemporary views of sexism on the part of Paul, he is actually showing the equality of men and women before God in this context, as the next two verses show. The women must also wear this authority so that the men will respect her as God's creation and not as a sexual being for pleasure. Whereas woman came from man, so also, man is born from woman. There is a circle of equality that Paul is expressing here. The Glory of man must be kept pure in worship. She is not to disract man's heart from God with her beauty. 4) Finally, this authority can also be seen not as a curse, but as a blessing from God. This is a sign of the womens' new authority given to her in these final days, as she is now able to freely prophesy along with the men, as seen in this context as well. Hopefully, this will shed some light on the subject for you. May your walk with Him be a blessed one! |
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42 | what are the 4 revelations of Ephesians? | Ephesians | ischus | 115806 | ||
LP, What do you mean by "revelations?" Are you referring to a specific verse. or are you speaking of the book as a whole? ischus |
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43 | This seesm to point to preordination (I | Eph 1:4 | ischus | 115841 | ||
Hello kimberlyann ! Welcome to the forum. There have been many conversations and many different views about predestination expressed on this forum, which you can find in the quick search box. My view is that God chooses/elects all to salvation, but we have the free will to either accept or reject him. This is demonstrated throughout the bible, from Adam to Noah to Abraham... all the way to Judas and Saul(Paul). ischus |
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44 | Heavenly things required cleansing???? | Heb 9:23 | ischus | 115337 | ||
Huron, My take on this verse is that the 'Heavenly things' refers to Heaven itself- God's abode. I think this can be seen in verse 24, where the writer contrasts the earthly sactuary with the true heavenly one. The betters sacrifice(s) then is obviously Jesus. The heavenly things need to be cleansed for the same reason that the earthly sanctuary needed to be cleansed. Look at Lev. 16:16- "He shall make atonement for the holy place, because of the impurities of the sons of Israel and because of their transgressions in regard to all their sins; and thus he shall do for the tent of meeting which abides with them in the midst of their impurities." Heaven needs to be cleansed simply because God's people have sinned. I don't fully understand the logic here, but it is in Both Leviticus and Hebrews, so there must be some reason. Hope this Helps! ischus |
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45 | Hell in the Bible: Literal or Figurative | Heb 11:40 | ischus | 114913 | ||
Hello everyone, I might begin by asking if, in light of a literal interpretation, you (the literalist) would also agree with a literal view of the eternity of Hell. My point is this: If one is given to literal flames, he cannot last for an eternity in such a physically literal situation. Perhaps I am mistaken, but I gather that you are vouching for a literal, physical Hell, right? I am not sure how this can be reconciled against scripture, for serveral different reasons: 1) The biblical writers never intended their words to be taken literally. Take Jude for example. In verse 7 he desribes Hell as an eternal fire, and then three verses later, in verse 10, he calls it the blackest darkness. Matthew uses the same two images of Fire and Darkness at different times as well. Surely these can not be coexistent in a literal hell. 2) A physical fire would only be effective on physical beings with physical nerve endings. If we look to Mt. 25:41 however, we see an eternal fire created for... Satan and his angels. This certainly cannot be a physical fire made for a spiritual being. It is rather a sort of "spiritual fire," the common metaphor for God's punishment upon the wicked. 3) Every New Testament description of both heaven and hell are symbolic accounts, not literal snapshots of furniture and living quarters. Take any verse in Revelation and this can be applied. John never intended to communicate that the great and aweful things that he was describing were literal, as if he could comprehend all that he was seeing. The NT writers did exactly what any of us would do when asked to describe hell; they picked the worst thing they could think of and described it exponentially. Steven King could make heaven a lot better sounding and hell a lot worse sounding than what the bible makes it out to be, because he would take what is meaningful to us and what would impact us to descibed it. 4) In ancient times, writers often used strong words, symbolically to underscore their point. Take Jesus: does he really want us to literlly hate our families, gouge out our eyes, and let someone else bury our family memebers when they die, or were these symbols used in order to prove his point? The majority of people (except for one rabbinic school) understood sybolism, hyperbole, and allegory as the most popular forms of communication in the first century. Whether one was speaking of discipleship, the church, Jesus, or heaven/hell, symbolism and metaphor were the way to go if they wanted to effectively express their point. As you might have noticed, I believe that the bible speaks metaphorically about heaven and hell, and I think that Peter falls in line with all other NT authors and should be taken as metiphorical. I know that I am the minority here, but I will do my best to answer any questions that this may raise. Ischus |
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46 | Jude 1:9 Actual or Parable? | Jude 1:9 | ischus | 115403 | ||
Hello jjg, This verse is neither parable, nor actual. Jude is referring to an apocryphal work, called "The Assumption of Moses," according to several church fathers. The story is that Satan provoked Michael the archangel to anger because Satan said to him that Moses was not worthy of an honorable burial, since he was a murderer, and yet Michael did not pronounce judgment or rebuke Satan. Instead, he said, "The Lord rebuke you." Jude's point is that even Michael, an archangel, refrained from pronouncing judgement and respected Satan's power, But the heretics of Jude's has no such respect for anyone, and just despised what they couldn't agree with or understand. Hope this helps! ischus |
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47 | WIIL WE SEE THE HOLY SPRIT IN HEAVEN ? | Revelation | ischus | 115357 | ||
L4Y, The bible is not clear on this subject as far as seeing the Spirit. Revelation seems to indicate a distictness between the lamb and the one on the throne, but they do fade in and out of one another, so this is also unclear. Perhaps Jesus will have a similar form to ours, since he was human, and so he might be distinct from the Father and the Spirit. I guess it depends on 1) your view of the Trinity 2) your interpretation of Revelation 3) Your imagination ;) Blessings- ischus |
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48 | in heaven will we mourn for those who ar | Rev 21:4 | ischus | 115216 | ||
6432 The short answer is no, in light of Rev.21:1-4, where God will make all things new, without pain, suffering, sadness, guilt, or regret. In regard to the ones not present in heaven, I cannot really give you a precise answer, other than the fact of what I have stated above, which lends itself to the conclusion that we will somehow not know or remember those who are absent???? This is purely hypothesis, though- I really have no idea. ischus |
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