Results 1581 - 1600 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1581 | Do what He did | 1 John 2:3 | Morant61 | 216871 | ||
Greetings Asis! This is one of those questions which could evoke lots of opinions. :-) Was John referring to the ten commandments, the Law of Moses? Was he inferring that one must obey these commands to be saved? Fortunately though, John himself tells us exactly what he means when he says that we must keep His commandments. Here is what John says in 1 John 3:23-24: "And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 Those who obey his commands live in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us." So, the answer is conclusive that we must believe in Christ and love one another. These are the commands to which John is referring. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1582 | Walk as He walked | 1 John 2:3 | Morant61 | 216887 | ||
Greetings Asis! Sorry for the delay, I had some family issues that I had to deal with yesterday. Is it really that simple? Yes and no! :-) It is that simple in that John specifically spells out for us what he means by obeying His commands. John is simply spelling out what Jesus Himself said, Love God and love one another. John repeatedly makes clear that obedience to God is to love one another, as Jesus loves us. Consider the following verses: John 13:34 - "‘‘A new command I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another. 35 By this all men will know that you are my disciples, if you love one another.”" John 15:12 - "My command is this: Love each other as I have loved you." John 15:17 - "This is my command: Love each other." 1 John 3:23 - "And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 Those who obey his commands live in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us." 1 John 4:21 - "And he has given us this command: Whoever loves God must also love his brother." 1 John 5:2 - "This is how we know that we love the children of God: by loving God and carrying out his commands. 3 This is love for God: to obey his commands. And his commands are not burdensome," 2 John 5 - " And now, dear lady, I am not writing you a new command but one we have had from the beginning. I ask that we love one another. 6 And this is love: that we walk in obedience to his commands. As you have heard from the beginning, his command is that you walk in love." Now, it is not that simple in that walking in love (or walking like Jesus) means that we will live holy lives - lives that match the demands of the ten commandments. Consider what Jesus said to the Pharisees: Matt. 22:34 - "Hearing that Jesus had silenced the Sadducees, the Pharisees got together. 35 One of them, an expert in the law, tested him with this question: 36 ‘‘Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?” 37 Jesus replied: ”‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38 This is the first and greatest commandment. 39 And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ 40 All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments.”" All of the law could be summed up as, "Love God and each other". Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1583 | All you need is love? | 1 John 2:3 | Morant61 | 216889 | ||
Greetings Asis! Just a quick reminder! When you respond to a post, just select 'note' rather than 'question'. When you select 'question', your post gets put on the unanswered question section of the forum. This spot is usually reserved for open ended questions rather than ongoing discussions. :-) I like your title by the way! "All you need is love" ;-) I notice in your profile that you have a Jewish background. You are probably familiar with the fact then that the Old Testament laws and rituals were fulfilled in Christ. No where in the New Testament are Christian 'obligated' to keep the Old Testament laws and rituals. In fact, many sections of the New Testament explicitly state that to do so is a perversion of the Gospel (see Galatians for instance). The Gospel presents us with a better way (i.e. - the Law of God is now written on our hearts and we do by nature what we could not previously do at all). So, a Christian will walk in holiness and obedience to God because they are a Christian. They do not walk in holiness and obedience to God in order to become a Christian. Do you understand the distinction? p.s. - Everything is fine. Thanks for asking! We are considering adopting our four grandchildren, so we could use everyone's prayers. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1584 | 1st John 3:4-9 Discussion on sin. | 1 John 3:9 | Morant61 | 126299 | ||
Greetings TheoMinor! I wish we could post Greek letters onto the forum! :-( Allow me to just briefly make a few comments and observations on some of the pertinent verses. 1 John 3:4: There is one inaccuracy concerning this verse. 'Poiwn' is not an imperative verb. It is a Present, Active, Participle, Masc, Nominative, Singular. You are correct about the 2nd occurance of 'poiew'. It is a Present, Active, Indicative, 3rd Person, Singular verb. However, the present doesn't necessarily mean 'now'. There are cases where the present tense can be used of either past or future action. The primary emphasis of tenses in Greek is the 'kind' of action, not the 'time' of action. Thus, 'present' stresses continuous action or serial action as opposed to point in time action. 1 John 3:6: The same thing is true of 'menon'. It is not an aorist, imperative, but a present, active, participle. In fact, all of the verbs you have indentified as aorist, imperatives are actually present, active, participles. Let me get back to the context a bit later. I just got home from work and need to get to bed! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1585 | New Testiment about lying? | 1 John 4:20 | Morant61 | 105943 | ||
Greetings Sissy! I believe you are looking for 1 John 4:20: "If anyone says, 'I love God,' yet hates his brother, he is a liar. For anyone who does not love his brother, whom he has seen, cannot love God, whom he has not seen." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1586 | The one true God? | 1 John 5:6 | Morant61 | 98064 | ||
Greetings Ray! As far as the interpretation of the two verses, I don't really see any difference (other than I would capitalize both). 'Outos' is tricky to translate into English. Sometimes, it almost functions as personal pronoun. If one wanted to be completly consistent, I would say to always translate it as 'This one'. But, personally, I like the way the NIV handles v. 20, by translating it as 'He'. My basic rule is that in verses like v. 6, where 'outos' is followed by a substative participle, to translate it as 'This is the one who...' or 'This is the One Who'. In cases like v. 20, where 'outos' basically serves as a personal pronoun, I would agree on translating it as 'He'. But, I wouldn't have any problem with a more consistent approach either! :-) It is just hard sometimes to put Greek into smooth English and be 'woodenly' literal at all times. :-) p.s. - What was the change in the newest NASB? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1587 | please answer the ? | 1 John 5:6 | Morant61 | 113672 | ||
Greetings Arrow1! Where exactly does Scripture specify a time frame in which baptism must occur? I would agree with you that the apparent custom was to do it relatively quickly after salvation, but no where does Scripture mandate a set time frame. So, any 'delay' that churches today may have may just be a matter of taste, culture, or preference. But, this does not make them 'wrong' since there is no specific time frame commanded. As far as the modern 'delay', I think there are several reasons. 1) We tend to wait until someone requests baptism today. I think we are wrong on this point. 2) We tend to wait until several people can be baptized at once. I know of some churches which have a monthly or quartely service where new converts are baptized together. I have no problem with this practice. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1588 | where is time frame for baptism? | 1 John 5:6 | Morant61 | 113685 | ||
Greetings Arrow1! An implied time frame is not what I asked about my friend! I asked for a commanded time frame. There is no such thing. As far as your question about baptism goes, Acts 10:47 fits the bill. Cornelius and his family received the 'gift of the Holy Spirit' prior to be baptized. Yet, according to the baptismal regeneration position, once must repent and be baptized to receive the 'gift of the Holy Spirit'. Therefore, Acts 10:47 proves that Acts 2:38 has been misinterpreted. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1589 | Why is it only found in 4 manuscripts? | 1 John 5:7 | Morant61 | 98704 | ||
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1590 | John 5:7 ? | 1 John 5:7 | Morant61 | 183559 | ||
Greetings Seedling! To answer your question, it is important that you understand how we get the Bible that we are reading today. The Bible is a collection of books written over a long period of time by many different human authors (but only One Divine One). All of these books were written in Hebrew and Greek, with one small section of Daniel being written in Aramaic. Furthermore, not all of the manuscripts (or copies) of these original books are as accurate as others. So scholars examine the manuscripts to find the best evidence for what the text actually said when it was originally written. In the case of 1 John 5:7-8, there is a only a handful of manuscripts, none of which were copied prior to about the 10th century, that actually provide evidence for the existence of 1 John 5:7-8 in the original book of 1 John. Therefore, all modern editions of the Bible leave out these verses because there is not enough evidence to include them. Now, as to the person to whom you are trying to witness, his (or her) argument is illogical. A copyist error in a handful of manuscripts made over a thousand years after the writing of the original book does not mean that the entire New Testament is false. :-) That would be like me saying if you hand copied the declaration of independence and made a mistake in producing the copy that the original declaration of independence is unreliable. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1591 | Everyone saved? because its God's will? | 1 John 5:12 | Morant61 | 133698 | ||
Greetings Liberty Bell! The short answer to your question is, 'Yes'! Yes, God does not want anyone to perish. 2 Peter 3:9 tells us this is so. However, other Scriptures also tells us that those who reject Christ will be condemned. John 3:18 - "Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son." John 3:36 - "Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on him." 1 John 5:12 - "He who has the Son has life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have life." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1592 | What is the sin NOT onto death? | 1 John 5:17 | Morant61 | 11715 | ||
Greetings BeeBee42! This is an extrememly difficult passage to interpret. The two most likely possibilities that I have heard are: 1) The sin unto death is a sin that is punished in this life by death, while sin not unto death is any sin which is not punished by death in this life. 2) The sin unto death is a sin for which there is not forgiveness available and leads to eternal damnation, while sin not unto death is any sin which can be forgiven. Personally, I prefer option one. I believe that there are some sins which are captial in nature (either by man or by God) and even prayer will not save the life of that person, even though they can still be forgiven. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1593 | Did God create evil? | 3 John 1:11 | Morant61 | 5333 | ||
Greetings, This is a tough question. My short answer would be this: Evil is not a thing that can be created. Rather, evil is the choice to disobey God's law. Evil is a natural possibility where choices are really available. Tim Moran |
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1594 | More Info on Beliefs | 3 John 1:11 | Morant61 | 6710 | ||
Greetings Chris! If you read all of my posts, you sure are a glutton for punishment! :-) Thanks for the kind words! The shortest way to list my beliefs would probably be to use common labels: I hold to a: Arminian, Pre-Wrath-Millenial Eschotology, Evangelical Theology. Through the years, I have had contact with many different theological bents (my Father-in-Law is an American Baptist Pastor.) Because of this, I have learned that many good Christian people have differing views on certain topics. I think it was JVHO212, who dealt with the issue of historic Chrisianity in one of his posts. He made an excellent point. There are core beliefs that define Christianity. In those core beliefs, there can be no debate. In all else, we can gracefully agree to disagee. 1a) Rom. 9:19-21: Romans is a wonderful book. From my study of it, I have developed the following interpretive paradigm. The main issue in Romans is this: Why are Gentiles being saved, while Jews are not? The Jewish nation had a tremendous amount of pride in their status as "God's choosen nation." This pride turned into an assumption that they were automatically "right" with God. In Romans, Paul destroys this believe. In chapter one, He argues that God's wrath is revealed against all pagans who have exchanged the truth of God for a lie (1:25). Every Jew reading this would have been saying, "Amen...Paul!" But, in chapter two, Paul includes the Jews under God's wrath for their violation of the Law God had given them. Consequently, according to Romans 3, all have fallen short of the glory of God. He the goes on to argue in chapter 4 through 8 that salvation is obtained only through faith in Christ, not by works. Chapters 9-11, focus specifically on the question of Israel's rejection of Christ. Has God failed in His promises to Israel? Of course not, Paul replies! You haven't understood His promises to begin with: a) Israel is an Israel of promise not of birth - Rom. 9:1-9. b) God has the sovereign right to extend His mercy to whomever His wishes - Rom. 9:10-29. So my short answer concerning Rom. 9:19-21, would be this: Israel (the clay) has no right to complain about how the potter (God) chooses to use them (the nation.) His purpose, according to Rom. 11:32 is clear, "For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all." 1b) In my opinion, the views of people like Robert Shank or Hank Hanagraf(?) are views that do justice to both election and responsibilty. I would highly recommend their writings. 2) I am very familiar with Dr. Zodhites(?). I have the utmost respect for his works. I'm not sure what the best resources are, there are so many. You need a good text (I used the UBS Greek text). You need a good lexicon or dictionary. The best is probably Kittel's, but it is very expensive. Good commentaries, which deal with the orginal text, are also helpful. Someone else might have some helpful suggestions as well. I have never used the Complete WordStudy Bible CD. I currently use the Logos Systems Bible program. 3) I would consider myself conservative, but I do believe in the present ministry of the Holy Spirit in the life of believers (including the gifts.) Your Brother in Christ |
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1595 | why did satan dispute | Jude | Morant61 | 205303 | ||
Duplicate Question... | ||||||
1596 | why did satan dispute over moses body | Jude | Morant61 | 205305 | ||
Duplicate Question... | ||||||
1597 | A look at our Master according to Jude? | Jude 1:1 | Morant61 | 37584 | ||
Greetings Ray! I don't if I have that specific text, but I have access to quite a few Greek texts. I would be happy to interact! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1598 | Jude quoting OT? Apochrypha? | Jude 1:9 | Morant61 | 96807 | ||
Greetings Huron! Jude is refering to a Jewish tradition found in the pseudepigraphical book, The Assumption of Moses. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1599 | God's wrath tribulational. | Revelation | Morant61 | 9872 | ||
Greetings RCScroll! Could your provide a Scripture reference and a clarification of your question? I'm not sure what you mean! Thanks, Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1600 | christianity | Revelation | Morant61 | 11209 | ||
Greetings Isa! I only have a couple of minutes, I'm on my way to church. However, let me touch on your two questions quickly. 1) Ephesians 2:8-10 tells us exactly what salvation is based upon and what happens to someone after they believe. It says, "For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— 9 not by works, so that no one can boast. 10 For we are God’s workmanship, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do." This passage, among many others, makes it perfectly clear that salvation is not earned or unearned by what we do or do not do. It is based solely upon the grace of God as demonstrated upon the cross. Once a person is saved, his nature is changed and he no longer will live in sin. Someone who hasn't given up his sins hasn't really repented. 2) I am a pastor because God called me to be one. I have been given the privilege of caring for and teaching other believers. I have been given the privilege of sharing the good news that Jesus saves to those who haven't heard. I pastor because of what Christ has done for me, not to earn anything else. In Christ, Tim Moran |
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