Results 1441 - 1460 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1441 | ? many X does "I am Who I am " in NT | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18540 | ||
Greetings Whfjcf@dancom.com! The actual phrase "I am Who I am" only occurs once in Exodus, and not at all in the New Testament. If you are referring to the Greek equivalent "eyw eimi", this phrase occurs 48 times. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1442 | I am Who I am in New Testament | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18538 | ||
Greetings Whfjcf@dancom.com! The actual phrase "I am Who I am" only occurs once in Exodus, and not at all in the New Testament. If you are referring to the Greek equivalent "eyw eimi", this phrase occurs 48 times. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1443 | RAPTURE! FACT OR FICTION | 1 Cor 15:51 | Morant61 | 18509 | ||
Greetings Lindsey! Both of your questions are easily answered from Scripture. 1) Cain: Gen. 4:1-2 says, "Adam lay with his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, ‘‘With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man." 2 Later she gave birth to his brother Abel." This is pretty self explanatory, but notice that the process of conception is exactly the same as we go through. Adam was the father and Eve was the mother of both Cain and Abel. 2) The Rapture: It is true that the word "Rapture" never occurs in the Bible, but the concept certainly does. The primary passage is 1 Thess. 4:13-18: "13 Brothers, we do not want you to be ignorant about those who fall asleep, or to grieve like the rest of men, who have no hope. 14 We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in him. 15 According to the Lord’s own word, we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left till the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever. 18 Therefore encourage each other with these words." The key word here is the Greek word ‘harpazo’, which is translated as "caught up" in v. 17. This same word is used twice in Acts (8:39 and 23:10) in reference to being physically removed from a situation. Thus, this passage clearly teaches that at some point in the future, those believers who have died will be raised and together with living believers will be physically caught up (raptured) into the clouds to meet Jesus. There are many questions about the rapture: When will it take place? When will it take place in relation to other end time events? However, the basic fact of the rapture is clearly Scriptural. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1444 | Did Christ die the "second" death for us | Rev 20:14 | Morant61 | 18448 | ||
Greetings Peter! You are to be commended for a very teachable attitude. We should always examine our beliefs in light of Scripture. To answer your question, your friend at church is correct. The "second death" is mentioned four times in the NIV. 1) Rev. 2:11 - "He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. He who overcomes will not be hurt at all by the second death." 2) Rev. 20:6 - "Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." 3) Rev. 20:14 - "Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death." 4) Rev. 21:8 - " But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.”" The last two references are the most important concerning your question. The "second death" is a reference to the final judgement of all those who reject Christ. It is literally what we think of when we use the term "Hell." You are correct that Christ died as our substitute. However, He has not been nor will He be consigned to an eternity in hell. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1445 | Can a wife live seperate from husband? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18415 | ||
Greetings Buckiii! This sort of issue has been discussed before. You might find more info by using the search feature and searching for posts dealing with divorce. My short answer would be "Yes" if: a) Her husband has been unfaithful. b) Her life is in danger. c) Her children's lives are in danger. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1446 | Is oral sex among a married couple a sin | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18413 | ||
Greetings Daisy! I am sure there a lot of people rushing to answer this question! :-) So, let me be the first! Rom. 1:26-27 deals with sexual intercourse between same sex partners. It does not have anything to do with sexual acts between opposite sex partners. I have been a pastor for about 10 years now. As a pastor, I get to deal with questions like this in pre-marital counseling. Here is my basic rule. Anything is allowed within marriage as long as it is: 1) Not condemended by Scripture (like adultery). 2) Mutually consentual. 3) Not physically harmful to either partner. So, I would say that consentual oral sex is fine. If you and your husband want to explore these sort of issues in more detail, I would recommend a book by Tim and Beverly LaHaye called "The Act of Marriage: The Beauty of Sexual Love". You can pick it up or order it at your local Christian bookstore. It only costs about six dollars. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1447 | Please help me to understand these verse | 2 Thess 2:13 | Morant61 | 18322 | ||
Alternative View.................................. Greetings Frankndebois! Steve and Joe (both fine Christian men) have responded to you from a reformed position. Allow me to respond from an Arminian perspective. 2 Peter 3:9 makes a very strong statement: "9 The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. He is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance." Whatever election and predestination mean, they cannot mean that God desires anyone to be lost. For a good discussion of these issues, read Robert Shank's books "Life in the Son" and "Elect in the Son." Also, I have started a series of posts on Romans 9-11. If you would like to check them out, do a word search on "morant61" and "rom". I need to finish these posts, but there is quite a bit there already on Romans 9. My short answer would be this, election and predestination refer to God's eternal plan to save both Jews and Gentiles, not to unconditional individual salvation. Everyone who responds to God's gift of salvation becomes one of the elect. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1448 | Possible Lockman Forum Improvement #3 | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18284 | ||
VOTE on Improvements # 2: Greetings Sir! Here is my 2 cents worth! #1 - I would love to be able to use symbols. #2 - Spell checking would be handy, if practical. Otherwise, we just need to use our word processors to do the same thing before we post. #3 - I don't really have an opinion on a chat room. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1449 | Doctrine of Election, Yes or No? | Eph 3:6 | Morant61 | 18268 | ||
Greetings Lee! There is quite a bit of information from both sides of the issue on this forum. For an Arminian view of election, do a search on the key word "shank". I have posted several messages dealing with Robert Shank's view of election. In my opinion, he does a great job of doing justice to both election and grace. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1450 | Hell and Heaven teaching at Old Testamen | Deut 32:22 | Morant61 | 18234 | ||
Greetings Jlpangilinan! Part of the answer is the progressive nature of revelation. We know more about some topics, like Hell, as the Bible progresses. But, Hell is discussed in the Old Testament. Try the following verses: 1) Prov. 15:24 mentions to paths, one leading up and one leading to Sheol. Sheol here must mean more than just death, since it can be avoided by rigtheous living. 2) Isaiah 33:14 talks about "everlasting burning." 3) Ez. 32:27 talks about Sheol as a punishment for sin. Again, it is likely that Sheol here means more than just death. 4) Prov. 23:14 talks about punishing a child to save his soul from Sheol. 5) Is. 66:24 talks about worms which do not die and fire which is not quenched. I hope these help! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1451 | what does Jer 48:11 refer to? | Jer 48:11 | Morant61 | 18119 | ||
Greetings Abel! This is an interesting verse. Basically, it is a statement of coming judgement upon Moab. Unlike Israel, Moab had experienced relative peace and rest. However, he had grown complacent. Jeremiah illustrates this by refering to wine. Grape juice was put into put into bottles or bags and allowed to ferment and settle. The dregs would sink to the bottom. After about 40 days, the wine would carefully be poured into another jar, to seperate the dregs from the wine. Moab was like an undisturbed bottle, but in v. 12, God warned that someone would come and break those undistrubed bottles. Thus, thing were about to change for Moab in a very dramatic way. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1452 | Is 'breath' physical life or spirit life | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18064 | ||
Greetings Bill! It is definitely not possible to be dogmatic about this verse, since it simply doesn't reveal everything that we would like to know about the issue. However, I think the emphasis is upon the granting of life, not a spiritual nature. Here is why? 1) The context of the passage has to with the animation of man, not the differences between him and the animal. 2) It is true that 'pnuema' can be translated as 'spirit' in some passages. However, the Septuagint translates 'nƒshamah' with the Greek word 'pnoe', which simply means 'breath or wind'. It doesn't use 'pnuema'. 3) 'Nfshamah' is not a word that is used to refer to the Spirit of God. That word is 'ruwach'. Thus, God didn't breath His Spirit into us. He breathed the breath of life into us. Finally, you asked about "souls". Yes, that word is the same word used to refer to the animals. However, I think we read a more mystical meaning into it than was understood by the Hebrews. The word basically just means "a living being". This would fit with both the animals and Adam. I would say that what distinguishes us from the animals is the Image of God from chapter one, not the breath of life in chapter two. But, who knows for sure! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1453 | Only seal and horse in same verse Rev6:5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18062 | ||
Greetings Casiv! The basic answer to your question is that chapters and verses were not part of the original text. They were added much later. Thus, there really isn't any particular significance to the fact that Rev. 6:5 is the only verse which mentions both the horse and the seal in the same verse. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1454 | Where did our souls come from? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 18032 | ||
Greetings BillyK! There are several ways of looking at your question. Some believe that a human being is made up of soul, spirit, and body. Others believe that human beings are made up of soul and body. Personally, I prefer to use Gen. 2:7 (KJV), "And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul." Thus, I believe that essentially, a human being is a unity of physical and spiritual. That unity will continue after the resurrection according to Scripture. Now, to you question. Whichever of the above views one adopts, there is no evidence in Scripture that our spirit/souls existed before conception. John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Spirit while he was in the womb (Lk. 1:15). Jeremiah was called from the womb (Jer. 1:5). David was sinful from conception (Ps. 51:5). However, there is never any mention of a life or soul being in existence prior to conception. So, the answer to your question is that our souls/spirits did not come from anywhere. They were created by God (directly or indirectly) at conception. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1455 | Can you define Arminian? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 17839 | ||
Greetings Bobbie Faye! Arminianism is the counterpart to Calvinism. It was a theological system articulated by John Arminius, a contemporary of John Calvin. The best way to explain it is to contrast it with the famous 5 points of Calvinism - TULIP. 1) Total Depravity: Calvinism teaches that men are depraved from birth. So, does Arminianism. The difference is that while Calvinists see this condition as meaning that men are incapable of even responding to God's grace, Arminians believe that even depraved beings can respond to God's mercy. 2) Unconditional Election: Calvinists believe that God uncondictionally chooses certain individuals to be saved, while Arminians believe that God desires all men to be saved. 3) Limited Atonement: Calvinists believe that Christ only atoned for the sins of the elect upon the cross, while Arminians believe that Christ atoned for the sins of the whole world upon the cross. 4) Irresistable Grace: Calvinists believe that those whom God calls must respond, while Arminians believe that God calls all, but that all can resist that call. 5) Perseverance of the Saints: Calvinists believe that those whom God has called must persevere, while Arminians believe that the gift of salvation can be willfully rejected, even after it has been accepted. This is a very simplistic presentation, but it covers the basics. Both views are considered orthodox, though they disagree on essential points. I hope this answers your question! If not, let met know! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1456 | How does the work "perfect" translate? | 1 Cor 13:10 | Morant61 | 17815 | ||
Greetings John! The word translated 'perfect' in 1 Cor. 13:10 is the Greek word 'teleios.' It is a word which basically conveys the idea of coming to completion or maturity. No one is quite sure what Paul meant by this term. Some have thought that Paul used it to refer to: 1) The Bible 2) The Kingdom of God 3) The Church I think the best bet is to simply see it as a reference to the completion of God's plan. When He is done with us, then there will not be any need for these gifts for we will be face to face with Him! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1457 | Lost my salvation? (Hebrews 6:4-6) | Heb 6:4 | Morant61 | 17813 | ||
Greetings JohnK! I understand your concern, but you need not be paralyzed with fear. There are two possible ways of looking at this passage, and neither one means that you are hopelessly lost. 1) Calvinistic Perspective: This view says that the passage is not talking about Christians. Therefore, the warning is not for you. 2) Arminian Perspective: This view says that Christians are addressed, but it is Christians who have "WILLFULLY" rejected Christ with full knowledge of what they were doing. Again, this would not apply to your circumstance. The basic context (I write from an Arminian perspective) is a group of Jewish believers who were seriously shaken in their faith because of persecution (see chap. 10 especially). They were seriously thinking of going back to Judaism. The writer of Hebrews, throughout the book, makes one simple point. Salvation is found in Christ alone, if you turn from Christ, there is not salvation. You and Peter both failed Christ, but you never rejected Christ. Peter was freely accepted by Christ, so are you my friend. Someone wrote earlier something to the effect that "it is those who are not worried about their relationship with Christ who need to be worried." I would agree. You may have failed, but you never rejected Him and you still desire to grow in grace. The message of Scripture to you is that "nothing can take you out of His hand." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1458 | Jesus says I AM in gospel John | John | Morant61 | 17710 | ||
Greetings Jeff! If you are refering to the "I am the bread of life" type statements, there are seven of them. 1) I am the Bread of Life - John 6:35. 2) I am the Light of the world - John 8:12. 3) I am the Gate for the sheep - John 10:7. 4) I am the Good Shepherd - John 10:11, 14. 5) I am the Resurrection and the Life - John 11:25. 6) I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life - John 14:6. 7) I am the True Vine - John 15:1. There are other places where Jesus says "I am" without any other modifiers. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1459 | Book of Jasher | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 17709 | ||
Greetings EdB! Every source I consulted said that the "Book of Jashar" was a lost work. It is believed to be a book of poetry. But, no where did I find any reference to an extant copy! So, I would assume that the internet copies are hoaxes. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran Tim Moran |
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1460 | tongues: are there 2 kinds? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 17535 | ||
Greetings Mike! The answer to your question would be 'Yes' and 'No'. No, there aren't two kinds of tongues! Yes, there appear to be two uses of tongues! 1 Cor. 12-14 deals extensively with the gifts. In it, it is mentioned that tongues with interpretation is meant for the public worship service, but tongues without interpretation is meant for personal worship. Some even combine this fact with Rom. 8:26 - " In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groans that words cannot express." - and say that this is a description of someone praying privately in tongues. Whether it is or not, 1 Cor. 12-14 defintitely makes a case for two seperate uses for tongues. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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