Results 761 - 780 of 1275
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Results from: Notes Author: srbaegon Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
761 | God's fair standards to judge evildoers | John 5:28 | srbaegon | 232637 | ||
Hi, The answer to the question is no. Paul makes this plain: Rom 10:12-17 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all, bestowing his riches on all who call on him. For "everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." But how are they to call on him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching? And how are they to preach unless they are sent?... So faith comes from hearing, and hearing through the word of Christ. John does as well: John 3:18 Whoever believes in him (i.e., Jesus) is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God. 1 John 5:11-12 And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. Steve |
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762 | God's fair standards to judge evildoers | John 5:28 | srbaegon | 232675 | ||
Hi Dan, No, I am not saying those before Jesus were already condemned. If you had read the thread, I stated earlier that men were responsible for what God had already revealed. Those alive after the Law was given but before the incarnation were responsible for the Law. Steve |
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763 | Once Save; Always Saved? | John 6:37 | srbaegon | 36129 | ||
Hello Zach, Let's dispense with the "straw men" and stick to Scripture. In Romans 6 Paul eliminates the error that you are purporting--that Christians will freely and easily continue in sin after salvation. Such is not the case. We are not to continue in sin (6:1,15) We are to consider ourselves dead to sin (6:11). We are not to let sin reign in us (6:12). We are to present our ourselves to God as alive from the dead (6:13). We have become slaves of righteousness (6:17-18). The Scriptures you shared (John 15:9-10, 14 Acts 5:32 Heb 5:9 1 John 2:4,9,15; 1:6; 3:10,15,24; 5:18 2 John 1:9; 3 John 11), especially John's epistles, are demonstrating the dichotomy of belief and unbelief and their characteristic behavior. If what you say is correct than every time I sin, I'm certainly bound for hell. Just how I'm reading you. Steve |
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764 | Becoming a christian | John 6:37 | srbaegon | 222911 | ||
Hello Inquisitor, What you find is that the NT references to baptism have an absolute and unbreakable link to salvation. But understand that baptism in the NT was a confession of faith like the so-called "Sinner's prayer" used today. Instead of talk, there was action. The correct understanding of what happened was misunderstood in later years of the church, eventually giving rise to the doctrine of baptismal regeneration. Steve |
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765 | Are Jesus and God 2 or 1? | John 8:17 | srbaegon | 130408 | ||
Hello thisbabbler, A history lesson is in order. What I gave you was concocted in 451 A.D. as a result of the Council of Chalcedon. This august group of theologians was brought together in order to look at the Arian heresy, which was debunked as heresy. The definition given is a portion of their final report. It may be difficult to read, but it's brilliant in its thoroughness. Steve |
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766 | Are Jesus and God 2 or 1? | John 8:17 | srbaegon | 130436 | ||
Hello thisbabbler, Yes, you can see the dogma unfold--quite brilliantly at that. Steve |
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767 | Truth is Found in God | John 8:32 | srbaegon | 235437 | ||
The word of truth is free, and carries its own authority, disdaining to fall under any skilful argument, or to endure the logical scrutiny of its hearers. But it would be believed for its own nobility, and for the confidence due to Him who sends it. Now the word of truth is sent from God, therefore the freedom claimed by the truth is not arrogant. For being sent with authority, it would not be proper that it should be required to produce proof of what is said; since neither is there any proof beyond itself, which is God.… And God, the Father of the universe, who is the perfect intelligence, is the truth. And the Word, being His Son, came to us, having put on flesh, revealing both Himself and the Father, giving to us in Himself resurrection from the dead, and eternal life afterwards. And this is Jesus Christ, our Savior and Lord. He, therefore, is Himself both the faith and the proof of Himself and of all things. Therefore those who follow Him, and know Him, having faith in Him as their proof, shall rest in Him. Justin Martyr, On the Resurrection, I |
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768 | Truth is Found in God | John 8:32 | srbaegon | 235580 | ||
That depends on the topic. Clement of Rome and Ignatius of Antioch are very pastoral and encouraging. For a defense of the faith: Epistle to Diognetus is concise, while Justin and Irenaeus are more comprehensive. They each have their strengths and weaknesses. It would be like choosing your favorite child. Steve |
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769 | Truth is Found in God | John 8:32 | srbaegon | 235748 | ||
Doc, I agree with your admiration and assessment. A little more Christian mentoring for both these men would have reaped much. Nonetheless, there is much to admire. Steve |
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770 | ... | John 8:58 | srbaegon | 214465 | ||
What did you mean that "Jesus does have a God"? Steve |
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771 | ... | John 8:58 | srbaegon | 214471 | ||
If Jesus is: * the image of the invisible God; (Col 1:15) * the firstborn of all creation; (Col 1:15) * the author, vehicle and power of creation; (Col 1:16-17) * the head of the body, the church; (Col 1:18) * the dwelling place of all the fullness of God (Col 1:19; 2:9) * the vehicle of reconciliation (Col 1:20) * the recipient of reconciliation (Col 1:20) If he is all these things (which can only be attributed to God alone), how is it that he has a God? Steve |
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772 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55081 | ||
Hello Stokeyhk So I must conclude that you believe Jesus is a created spirit-being who took on the appearance of man and has now attained to some type of functional godhood because of his close relation and obedience to God. Does that about sum it up? Steve |
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773 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55098 | ||
Hello Stokey And Hebrews 1:8-12 shows that the Son is, has been, and always will be the one true God. Also, John 12:37-41 clearly identifies Jesus as the glorified one who was sitting on a throne in Isaiah 6:1-3. Steve |
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774 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55099 | ||
Hello Ray Jesus Christ is most certainly a man. It is that man who is our mediator today. 1 Tim. 2:5 (ESV) For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, Steve |
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775 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55146 | ||
Hello Ray "Why do we have to think of Christ as a man like Adam...?" To help the offspring of Abraham, he became like man in all things, sin apart. Hebrews 2:14,17-18 (ESV) Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil,...[17] Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. [18] For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted. Steve |
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776 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55539 | ||
Hello Stokey 1) You've done a nice job of proving the deity of the pre-incarnate Christ, except for verse 6. You ignore that the verse says Jesus existed in the form of God. A good definition of humility is found in Romans 12:3 (ESV) For by the grace given to me I say to everyone among you not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think, but to think with sober judgment, each according to the measure of faith that God has assigned. Jesus, being very God, could not think more highly of himself because he had all glory, and as God, all glory was due to him. He emptied himself of that glory to be born and put on flesh. 2) Or consider Romans 9:5 (ESV) To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen. This translation expressly states that Jesus is the one, true God. But rather than debate translations, let's look at content. Paul is simply stating that the Christ was born of Israel and that God should be praised for it. It does not infer that God is above Jesus. 3) No, Jesus has the preeminence because he was, is, and always will be the one, true God. 4) Well, you've just ruined your previous argument. By your reasoning then, Jesus was merely appointed the Son of God, and then according to Rom 1:4 only at his resurrection. But earlier you said he was a son before his incarnation. 5) Grasping at straws, are we? 6) Let me help with a different translation of Proverbs 8:22 (ESV) "The Lord possessed me at the beginning of his work, the first of his acts of old." It's true that LXX has "created" for "possessed," but one cannot build a theology via a single manuscript. The idea of "possessed" is "fathered," thus demonstrating the eternal sonship of Jesus. And you are correct that Jesus is unique. He was God who willing put on humanity for us. Steve |
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777 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55645 | ||
Hello Stokey Just to address a few quick things. I'm too busy for an indepth response. 1) You mix apples with oranges. "Firstborn" in Rev 3:14 is "arche". From Strong's: 1) beginning, origin 2) the person or thing that commences, the first person or thing in a series, the leader 3) that by which anything begins to be, the origin, the active cause 4) the extremity of a thing 4a) of the corners of a sail 5) the first place, principality, rule, magistracy 5a) of angels and demons You can see that it has the idea of preeminence, rather than the first in a sequence. 2) The word "godhead" in Strong's actually means: 1) deity 1a) the state of being God, Godhead 5) "He says all the oldest manuscripts of this verse contain a period after 'flesh.'" The oldest manuscripts don't even have punctuation. Better throw away the book. Steve |
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778 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55727 | ||
Hello Stokey 1) Let me state it better then. You can see that it has the idea of preeminence, so that first in a sequence is because of rightful place and not because one begins to count from there. Look at the whole picture please. And you are still comparing apples to oranges. That's deceptive. 2) You stated the definition came from Strong. Now you say it's from Webster. More deception? 5) The author of that book must have seen a better copy of Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph) than I've seen, so my teacher was wrong. I'll check it for myself later. Steve |
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779 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55739 | ||
Hello Stokey You've done a good job of proving Michael is an/the archangel. However, the granting of authority by God for a particular function does not make someone equal to Jesus. Steve |
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780 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55879 | ||
Hello Stokey I quote from your posting (ID# 55632): "Strong's says (a) means: 'godlike (neut. as noun, divinity).' This indicates a quality in the neuter tense; (b) means: 'divinity (abstract)'; (c) means: 'divinity (abstract).'" I'm just calling you on your statement. Steve |
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