Results 1001 - 1020 of 1275
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Results from: Notes Author: srbaegon Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1001 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | srbaegon | 132230 | ||
Hello alienresident, I would say that the sacrifice had to be accomplished by a perfect man. The problem was that there were none descended from Adam who was perfect because of imputed sin (Rom 5:12-21). Steve |
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1002 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | srbaegon | 132325 | ||
Hello alienresident, Of course God could have accomplished this. He is the one most qualified to do so. No man or spirit being is perfect enough to accomplish such an all-encompassing sacrifice. Look. Jesus asked a man, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone" (Mark 10:17). That is a true statement. But if one believes that Jesus is not God in the flesh, then Jesus cannot possibly be good enough to atone for anyone's sin much less His own. Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: 1 Tim 3:16 (ESV) [Who] was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory. Steve |
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1003 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | srbaegon | 132330 | ||
Hello alienresident, You didn't answer the question. How do you reconcile your statement with Scrupture? Gal 4:4-5 (ESV) But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, [5] to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons. It sounds to me as well that the timing was absolute. Steve |
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1004 | The ransom - God or man? | 1 Cor 15:21 | srbaegon | 132393 | ||
Hello alienresident, We have a problem. You just stated that according to 1 Tim 3:16, Jesus had a prehuman existence. Neither the verse nor the paragraph mentions Jesus. The only way for you to come to that conclusion is to agree that Jesus is godliness incarnate--the very embodiment of godliness. The only person who can achieve that state is God Himself. Steve |
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1005 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | srbaegon | 55726 | ||
Hello Stokey I was giving an example of Jesus demonstrating both his equality in substance and difference in role. And you miss John 10:28 (ESV) I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. Only God can do that. Steve |
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1006 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | srbaegon | 55744 | ||
Hello Stokey "So God can delegate authority to give eternal life to others, and has done so to his firstborn Son." Properly, God has granted this authority to Jesus. The question is: When was this authority granted? Answer: In eternity when there was only God--Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Steve |
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1007 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | srbaegon | 55899 | ||
Hello Stokey Yes, it was a sweeping statement. The difficulty is that in both verses (5:26 and 17:2) "grant" is aorist which is defined as: a·o·rist n. 1.A form of a verb in some languages, such as Classical Greek, that expresses action without indicating its completion or continuation. 2.A form of a verb in some languages, such as Classical Greek or Sanskrit, that in the indicative mood expresses past action. Source: The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition Copyright © 2000 by Houghton Mifflin Company. aorist, n. A tense in the Greek language, which expresses an action as completed in past time, but leaves it, in other respects, wholly indeterminate. Source: Webster's Revised Unabridged Dictionary, © 1996, 1998 MICRA, Inc. aorist n : a verb tense in some languages (classical Greek; Sanskrit) expressing action (especially past) without indicating its completion or continuation. Source: WordNet ® 1.6, © 1997 Princeton University So all either of us can definitely say concerning this granting is that it happened prior to John 5:26 and continues on indefinitely. However, since we know that Jesus is Jehovah God (compare Isaiah 6:1-5 with John 12:41), we can safely assume it was before creation. Why was it necessary to grant it? I have no idea. Steve |
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1008 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | srbaegon | 55986 | ||
Hello Stokey I just did a search of all your postings on this forum and could not find and references to either Isaiah 6:1 or John 12:41. But to reiterate, Isaiah only saw one person. Isaiah 6:1 (ESV) In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train of his robe filled the temple. And he heard only one voice other than the seraphim: Isaiah 6:8 (ESV) And I heard the voice of the Lord saying, "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" Then I said, "Here am I! Send me." I suppose you're going to say Jesus is actually a seraph? Of course I read Isaiah 9:6. It was in your posting. But what was your point in giving it? Steve |
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1009 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | srbaegon | 228555 | ||
Hello SeekTruth, You do a good job of using a portion of the biblical text to make your point. Perhaps using the whole thing will shed light on the truth. The discussion into which you break concerns being children of God. This actually begins at 1 John 2:28 where the referent of the pronouns (abide in him, so that when he appears...) is the Son, whose real coming to earth as messiah and taking on a human nature is the thesis of the epistle. Pick all the cherries you like. The epistle is clear in reference to three co-equal, eternal persons. Steve |
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1010 | How can the Son at the end be subject be | 1 Cor 15:28 | srbaegon | 228579 | ||
You have moved from pretext to evasion and generalization. I gave you scripture (expanding on 1 John), and you did not address it. Apparently, your argument has no basis, so you turn to rhetorical devices. I will not bite. Steve |
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1011 | Second Adam? | 1 Cor 15:45 | srbaegon | 55111 | ||
Hi Joe You aren't the first, though. I was just curious. Steve |
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1012 | Ez. 13:20 and the Rapture? | 1 Cor 15:51 | srbaegon | 18711 | ||
Casiv, You might want to reread Ezekiel 13. The KJV is plain in stating that the Lord was releasing souls being hunted so they could fly from those trying to ensnare them. There is no hint of "teaching others to fly." Steve |
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1013 | Ez. 13:20 and the Rapture? | 1 Cor 15:51 | srbaegon | 18786 | ||
I think I understand the disagreement between us. I say that "to make them fly" refers to God's desire to loose the bound souls that they might flee. You say the same phrase refers to the those who are doing the capturing. Would you give me a book title or website or something else to corroborate your interpretation? Steve |
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1014 | Ez. 13:20 and the Rapture? | 1 Cor 15:51 | srbaegon | 18787 | ||
Never mind. I found some websites. Steve |
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1015 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 136663 | ||
Hello victorA, You said "No matter how you try and 'twist', the loving Creator would not blind anyone for any reason." 2 Thess 2:11-12 (ESV) Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, [12] in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness. Steve |
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1016 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 137001 | ||
Hello pcdarcan, c. A non-issue. The most literal translation would not capitalize either. d. Clarke's statement does not contradict Matt 15. Clarke was speaking from Rom 11. e and f. Clarke is wrong. g. Innocent? Read Rom 3:10. h. Opinion statement. I've never heard these called the main attributes. i. You statement does not contradict Clarke. God saves some and hardens others. j and k. No comment. Steve |
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1017 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 137003 | ||
Hello pcdarcan, l. This does not contradict that God hardens whom He will (Rom 9). m. But 2 Thess 2:11 says that God will cause people to believe a lie. You said: "God is looking for opportunities to open every person's eyes" Chapter and verse please. Steve |
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1018 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 137043 | ||
Hello pcdarcan, "God doesn't arbitrarily harden anyone's heart..." I never said he did. Two verses concerning hardening: Ex 4:21 (ESV) And the Lord said to Moses, "When you go back to Egypt, see that you do before Pharaoh all the miracles that I have put in your power. But I will harden his heart, so that he will not let the people go." 2 Thess 2:11-12 (ESV) Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, [12] in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness. In both cases God is actively hardening. There's no getting around it. "God's desire is simple: for 'everyone to come to repentance'." And yet the context of 2 Peter 3:9 is to believers. Steve |
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1019 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 137049 | ||
Hello pcdarcan, "These scriptures don't support the notion that 2 Cor 4:4 pertains to God Almighty." Why not? You do not give a reason. Of course believers are already saved, but the verse says that God wants all to come to repentance. There's a difference between repentance and salvation. They don't equate. Steve |
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1020 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | srbaegon | 137056 | ||
Hello pcdarcan, Hank is correct about a little inductive reasoning. The best explanation for "the god of this world" to be Satan is the paragraph itself. The comparison of light (God; Jesus Christ) to the blinding causes me to say it is Satan. The reason I kept leading you on was because you were stuck on how great your exegesis and reasoning was. Steve |
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