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Results from: Notes Author: kalos Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
521 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 170135 | ||
Mark: Many thanks to you for your replies. I won't be able to get back to you until later tonight or tomorrow, but I will get back to you. The same with the email you sent me. Sorry to take so long to reply to it, but I will reply. Grace to you, Kalos |
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522 | Is there any truth to the DaVinci code? | John 1:14 | kalos | 170116 | ||
Is there any truth to the DaVinci code? (Source: www.gotquestions.org/ DaVinci-code-truth.html) 'Question: "Is there any truth to the DaVinci code?" 'Answer: It is important to remember that the DaVinci Code is entirely fictional. As much as the author would like you to believe, the DaVinci Code has no solid basis historically, Biblically, or theologically. The DaVinci Code is essentially an attempt to “humanize” Jesus Christ by inventing a story of how His true identity was distorted and hidden for nearly two thousand years. In the DaVinci Code, Jesus was married to Mary Magdalene and had children. Mary Magdalene and Jesus’ descendants were the “holy grail” that carries the blood of Christ. The DaVinci Code states that these facts about Jesus Christ were covered up by the early church in order to protect the idea of Jesus’ divinity. All the Christian books which told of Jesus’ relationship with Mary Magdalene were destroyed. Any evidence of such a relationship was covered up. 'Again, the DaVinci code is fiction. It has no basis in reality. It is a well-written, entertaining book – but that is it. Dan Brown, the author, is of the persuasion that these ideas about Jesus are true. Since there is no historical, Biblical, or theological basis for his beliefs, Dan Brown presented them in a fictional account. Jesus was not married to Mary Magdalene or anyone else. Jesus did not have any children. Yes, the early church attempted to destroy many “gospels” about Jesus, but they did so because they were almost universally recognized as heretical, not to cover anything up. Even these “gospels” only give hints of a relationship between Jesus and Mary Magdalene. The church did not cover up the truth about Jesus being married to Mary Magdalene. Rather, the church protected the truth about Jesus being God in the flesh (John 1:1,14). 'The DaVinci Code is in reality an attack on the Person of Jesus Christ. People do not want to believe that Jesus is God, that Jesus is the Savior – so they make up false beliefs about Him in order to create a false Jesus that they can believe in. That is what the DaVinci Code is all about – presenting a false view of who Jesus Christ truly was…and then explaining why this “truth” has been hidden for nearly 2000 years. Please also see our articles on Jesus being married, on Mary Magdalene, and on the lost books of the Bible.' Recommended Resource: Breaking the DaVinci Code: Answers to the Questions Everybody's Asking by Darrell Bock. ____________________ Related Topics: Who was Mary Magdalene? Was Jesus married? What occurred at the Council of Nicea? Did Constantine decide what books belonged in the Bible? What are the lost books of the Bible? Source: www.gotquestions.org/ DaVinci-code-truth.html |
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523 | Can an abused person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:39 | kalos | 170090 | ||
Does God really hate? Does He really love? Does God really love or is it an anthropomorphism? The point: If we say God doesn't really hate, then we must also say He doesn't really love. NASB Psalm 5:5 The boastful shall not stand before Your (God's) eyes; You (God) hate all who do iniquity. ____________________ "The Bible never says that God loves the sinner but hates the sin." ____________________ 'Jesus died on the cross to avert the wrath of God from sinners. Therefore, the only way to be "saved" from the wrath of God, is to trust in Christ. This is what it means to be saved. It means to be saved from God's wrath: "Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him, (Rom. 5:9). 'The gospel is not about a "nice" God who is begging people to come to Him because He loves the sinner but hates the sin. (The Bible never says that God loves the sinner but hates the sin.) 'On the contrary: "The boastful shall not stand before Thine eyes; Thou dost hate all who do iniquity," (Psalm 5:5). And, "There are six things which the Lord hates, yes, seven which are an abomination to Him: 17 Haughty eyes, a lying tongue, and hands that shed innocent blood, 18 A heart that devises wicked plans, feet that run rapidly to evil, 19 A false witness who utters lies, and one who spreads strife among brothers," (Prov. 6:16-19). 'Such biblical teaching is not in harmony with most popular Christian theology today because it doesn't present God as the "nice" God that is begging people to come to Him. Instead, the truth is that God is Holy and He will punish the sinner. But that isn't all of it. God is also love (1 John 4:8) which is why He sent His Son, to save us: “For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world should be saved through Him," (John 3:17).' ____________________ CARM NEWSLETTER, October 30, 2003 To view past newsletters, go to www.carm.org/ newsletters_2003.htm |
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524 | God hates DIVORCE and VIOLENCE | Mal 2:16 | kalos | 170084 | ||
Spousal Abuse Malachi 2:16 The New King James Version "For the LORD God of Israel says That He hates divorce, For it covers one's garment with violence," Says the LORD of hosts. "Therefore take heed to your spirit, That you do not deal treacherously." The Holy Bible, New International Version® "I hate divorce," says the LORD God of Israel, "and I hate a man's covering himself with violence as well as with his garment," says the LORD Almighty. So guard yourself in your spirit, and do not break faith. ____________________ "God's laws do not allow for a man to beat on his wife." ____________________ 'There are many Christians who believe that a wife is bound to stay with her husband no matter what he does to her. We do not believe this is biblical. Here is what we believe is a biblical procedure for a woman who is being abused by her spouse to follow. 'Since Romans 13:1 and Titus 3:1 call Christians to obey the civil authorities over us, when a Christian sees someone breaking the law, it is our duty, as a godly citizen to report that person. Spousal abuse is against the law. A Christian wife has the responsibility, however difficult it may be, to report an abusive husband to the police. In Malachi 2, we read of God chastising men for breaking faith with their wives. Many are quick to quote the first portion of Malachi 2:16, "'I hate divorce,' says the LORD God of Israel" but they forget to look at the second half of that statement: "'and I hate a man's covering himself with violence as well as with his garment,' says the LORD Almighty. So guard yourself in your spirit, and do not break faith." These two parts of the statement, God hating divorce and God hating men who cover themselves with violence in regards to their wives, are set up in an equality. While it is true that God hates divorce, He equally hates a man who is violent with his wife. (The entire passage is dealing with a man's relationship towards his wife so this is the only meaning "covering himself with violence" can have.) God's laws do not allow for a man to beat on his wife.' ____________________ To read the entire article go to: www.oaim.org/spousalabuse.html |
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525 | Can an abused person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:39 | kalos | 170076 | ||
What do you mean desertion is questionable? 1 Corinthians 7:15 The Amplified Bible But if the unbelieving partner [actually] leaves, let him do so; in such [cases the remaining] brother or sister is not morally BOUND. But God has called us to peace. The Holy Bible, New International Version® But if the unbeliever leaves, let him do so. A believing man or woman is NOT BOUND in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace. The black-letter words in your Bible are no less inspired than the red-letter words. The book of 1 Corinthians is just as inspired as the words of Jesus. EVERY Scripture is God-breathed (given by His inspiration)...2 Timothy 3:16 The Amplified Bible The New King James Version ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God... |
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526 | What is spiritual baptism? | Acts 1:5 | kalos | 170059 | ||
Retxar: Indeed it has been "long time no see". What a joy it is to see you back on the forum! I think I know what you believe and why you believe it. I say that because I've been a member of Assemblies of God churches most of the time since 1959. (Here and there I've attended baptist churches, but it's been mostly AG.) I'm extremely well acquainted with the doctrine AND the experience of the Holy Spirit. While there is some disagreement between you and me, I think it's safe to say that overall we agree far more than we disagree. I believe in the gifts of the Spirit, including tongues. I believe they are still in operation today. To read more about my understanding of the Holy Spirit, the gifts, and the difference between "filled" and "baptized", use the search function to look for the words "Spirit bapti" -- without the quote marks, of course -- by user "kalos". By typing "bapti" in the search field, you will get results for "baptize", "baptized", and "baptism". Grace to you, Kalos |
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527 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 170019 | ||
Participants in the thread: This thread is taking some interesting twists and turns. In my original post -- the one that started the thread -- I asked, "What do the following verses mean?" Then I quoted three Bible verses -- without comment. Grace to you, Kalos |
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528 | Baptized by the Holy Spirit | Eph 5:18 | kalos | 169981 | ||
Baptized by or filled with the Holy Spirit Question: Do BAPTIZED BY the Holy Spirit and FILLED WITH the Holy Spirit mean the same thing? Answer: No, they do not mean the same thing. Being BAPTIZED BY the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:13) is not the same as being FILLED WITH the Spirit (Eph. 5:18). Let the Word of God -- not the words of man -- increase our understanding of the terms baptized, filled and indwelt. 1) At the time of our salvation we are *baptized* (placed) into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit. NASB 1 Corinthians 12:13 For BY one Spirit we were all BAPTIZED into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit. AMPLIFIED 1 Corinthians 12:13 For by [means of the personal agency of] one [Holy] Spirit we were all, whether Jews or Greeks, slaves or free, baptized [and by baptism united together] into one body, and all made to drink of one [Holy] Spirit. 2) Also, at the time of our salvation, we are *indwelt* by the Holy Spirit. NASB Romans 8:9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God DWELLS in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:9 But you are not living the life of the flesh, you are living the life of the Spirit, if the [Holy] Spirit of God [really] dwells within you [directs and controls you]. But if anyone does not possess the [Holy] Spirit of Christ, he is none of His [he does not belong to Christ, is not truly a child of God]. [Rom. 8:14.] 3) We are also commanded to be *filled* with the Spirit. Eph. 5:18 While all believers are indwelt by the Holy Spirit (Rom. 8:9), it is obvious that not all believers at all times are *filled* with the Spirit (Eph. 5:18-20). Eph. 5:18 'be filled with the Spirit. Paul has taught in this epistle that all believers are sealed with the Spirit when they believe (Eph. 1:13-14; 4:30), but not all are filled, since that depends on yieldedness to God's will (5:17). 'Filling' describes an experience that can be repeated (Acts 2:4; 4:31), and here, as in Acts, it is connected with joy, courage, spirituality and Christian character' (Ryrie Study Bible: Expanded Edition, note at Eph. 5:18.) And do not get drunk with wine, for that is debauchery; but ever be filled and stimulated with the [Holy] Spirit. [Prov. 23:20.] AMPLIFIED Ephesians 5:18 And the evidence of being filled with the Spirit? Let God be true. He says: Speak out to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, offering praise with voices and making melody with all your heart to the Lord, at all times and for everything giving thanks in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ to God the Father. Ephesians 5:19-20 Amplified |
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529 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169933 | ||
That's another good reason to choose XM radio. I detest those "breakfast flakes" (morning drive time talk/commercials/music) programs. I can get all the talk shows I want on AM radio. And I can hear all the inane chatter I can stand after I get to work. :-) Grace to you, Kalos |
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530 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169931 | ||
Russ: Thanks for the very helpful information on satellite radio. The specific reasons you gave for preferring XM are reasons I can relate to; i.e. I would like XM for many of the same reasons you do. I especially like the idea that XM has separate channels for the various eras (decades) of music. My favorite music decade is the 1950s -- both the rock and non-rock hits of that era. Thanks for answering my previous questions. I understand when you write that it's not so much to scold any one person. Several times I myself have unintentionally offended the addressee of a Note when they themselves were not the person(s) I was criticizing. That is, I was making a general comment and the person I addressed thought I meant them when I didn't. My opinion: if some replies on the forum are too im-personal (obective, factual), then others are too personal (subjective, speculative). This is another generalization and I didn't mean you in either case. :-) Grace to you, Kalos |
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531 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169924 | ||
Russ: I am confused. I do not understand where you are coming from or what you're getting at. In your post you use some form of the word "search" a total of 11 times. Yet in Tim's note (the one you were replying to) not once did he use the word "search" or any form of it. So I wonder why you are scolding Tim when that is not what he said. I understand your point, your objection to telling people to search for the answer, but Tim didn't say that. (By the way, which is better -- XM or Sirius? I'd really like to know since I am considering getting satellite radio.) Grace to you, Kalos |
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532 | evil spirit from God | 1 Sam 18:10 | kalos | 169923 | ||
Did God create evil? You write that God "created everything John 1:3. That includes evil." I quote from GotQuestions.org: 'Question: "Did God create evil?" 'Answer: At first it might seem that if God created all things then evil must have been created by God. However, there is an assumption here that needs to be cleared up. Evil is not a "thing" - like a rock or electricity. You can't have a jar of evil! Rather, evil is something that occurs, like running. Evil has no existence of its own - it is really a lack in a good thing. For example, holes are real but they only exist in something else. We call the absence of dirt a hole - but it cannot be separated from the dirt. So when God created, it is true that all that existed was good. One of the good things that God made was creatures who had the freedom to choose good. In order to have a real choice, God had to allow there to be something besides good to choose. So God allowed these free angels and humans to choose good or non-good (evil). When a bad relationship exists between two good things we call that evil, but it does not become a "thing" that required God to create it. 'Perhaps a further illustration will help. If I were to ask the average person "does cold exist?" - their answer would likely be yes. However, this is incorrect. Cold does not exist. Cold is the absence of heat. Similarly, darkness does not exist. Darkness is the absence of light. Similarly, evil is the absence of good, or better, evil is the absence of God. God did not have to create evil, but rather only allow for the absence of good. 'Look at the example of Job in Job chapters 1-2. Satan wanted to destroy Job, and God allowed Satan to do everything but kill Job. God allowed this to happen to prove to Satan that Job was righteous because he loved God, not because God had blessed him so richly. God is sovereign and ultimately in control of everything that happens. Satan cannot do anything unless he has God's "permission." God did not create evil, but He allows evil. If God had not allowed for the possibility of evil, both mankind and angels would be serving God out of obligation, not choice. He did not want “robots” that simply did what He wanted them to do because of their "programming." God allowed for the possibility of evil so that we could genuinely have a free will and choose whether we wanted to serve Him or not. 'Ultimately, there is not an answer to these questions that we can fully comprehend. We, as finite human beings, can never fully understand an infinite God (Romans 11:33-34). Sometimes we think we understand why God is doing something, only to find out later that it was for a different purpose than we originally thought. God looks at things from an eternal perspective. We look at things from an earthly perspective. Why did God put man on earth knowing that Adam and Eve would sin and therefore bring evil, death, and suffering on all mankind? Why didn’t He just create us all and leave us in Heaven where we would be perfect and without suffering? The best answer I can come up with is this: God didn’t want a race of robots who did not have a free will. God had to allow the possibility of evil for us to have a true choice of whether to worship God or not. If we never had to suffer and experience evil, would we truly know how wonderful heaven is? God did not create evil, but He allowed it. If He hadn’t allowed evil, we would be worshipping Him out of obligation, not by a choice of our own free will.' ____________________ www.gotquestions.org/ did-God-create-evil.html 'Related Topics: 'Why does God allow bad things to happen to good people? 'Where was God on September 11th? 'Why was God so evident in the Bible, and seems so hidden today? 'Does God change His mind? 'Why does God allow natural disasters, i.e. earthquakes, hurricanes, and tsunamis?' |
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533 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169911 | ||
"It's not a discussion group" If you click on "About the Forum" and read the instructions contained therein, you will find that StudyBibleForum.com is "not a discussion group". What is StudyBibleForum.com? According to the information at the web page About the Forum*, 'The StudyBibleForum.com is built from the "Bible" up. A synergetic resource built to enhance and deepen your study of God's Word. 'It's like a free study Bible with an unlimited margin, that contained helpful verse notes, and was continually expanding. A resource where you can access and/or contribute to a dynamic repository of verse notes. IT'S NOT A DISCUSSION GROUP or topical survey, but an ever growing "expository repository" that gives the layman and scholar an opportunity to share truth and contribute wisdom.' (Emphasis added.) ____________________ *About the Forum http://studybibleforum.com/ about.php |
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534 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169874 | ||
Tim: I agree with you that: "None of these passages indicate that it is inappropriate to engage in studies of doctrine or to engage in detailed discussions about a Bible passage." As long as they don't go beyond mere studies and discussions. As long as they don't degenerate into something else. Indeed, what is the forum here for? Sometimes I wonder. Discussion (such as we are having now) is one thing. Quarreling is another thing altogether. Answering questions is one thing. Long drawn-out debates -- which OFTEN result in quarrels, verbal abuse, ad hominem attacks, and insults -- is another thing entirely. So is it OK to have "stupid and foolish controversies...and dissensions and wrangling" among ourselves, as long as we don't have them with false teachers? Among ourselves is it OK to engage in "trifling (ill-informed, unedifying, stupid) controversies over ignorant questionings," even though we "know that they foster strife and breed quarrels"? Is there no problem if those in the body of Christ have "a morbid fondness for controversy and disputes and strife about words, which result in (produce) envy and jealousy, quarrels and dissension, abuse and insults and slander, and base suspicions"? Such things are A-OK (they edify, and inspire) as long as we keep them all in the family? Grace to you, Kalos |
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535 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169862 | ||
Heard on Christian TV ____________________ "There's a difference between ignorance and genius. Genius has its limitations." ____________________ |
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536 | What To Shut Your Mind Against | 2 Tim 2:23 | kalos | 169861 | ||
What To Shut Your Mind Against Tim Moran: This is in reply to the question in your post, ID# 169466. Yes, there is another topic that is just crying out for attention. The question is: What do the following verses mean? (In this question I do not accuse anyone of anything. I merely raise the question.) 2 Timothy 2:23 The Amplified Bible But refuse (SHUT YOUR MIND AGAINST, have nothing to do with) trifling (ill-informed, unedifying, stupid) controversies over ignorant questionings, for you know that they foster strife and breed quarrels. (Emphasis added.) 1 Timothy 6:4 The Amplified Bible He is puffed up with pride and stupefied with conceit, [although he is] woefully ignorant. He has a morbid fondness for controversy and disputes and strife about words, which result in (produce) envy and jealousy, quarrels and dissension, abuse and insults and slander, and base suspicions, Titus 3:9 The Amplified Bible But avoid stupid and foolish controversies and genealogies and dissensions and wrangling about the Law, for they are unprofitable and futile. Grace to you, Kalos :-) |
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537 | A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? Intro | Titus 2:13 | kalos | 169800 | ||
A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? V By Rev. Bill Lee-Warner 'Two examples corroborating the teaching that the church is present through some portion of the persecution and therefore not removed from the earth in a secret coming prior to the 70th Week are Irenaeus (the disciple of Polycarp, a disciple of the apostle John) and Justin Martyr. Irenaeus wrote, "And they [the ten kings] ... shall give their kingdom to the beast, and put the Church to flight." (Against Heresies 5:26.1) 'Justin Martyr, wrote, "The man of apostasy [Antichrist] ... shall venture to do unlawful deeds on the earth against us the Christians." (Trypho cx) 'The early church fathers understood there to be only one coming of Christ. They never separated His coming into the idea that He would come first in a secret coming for His church and then later (perhaps seven years) with His church to pour out His wrath on wicked mankind. 'For the above reasons, to understand that a difference was intended in Titus 2:13 between "the blessed hope" being the (secret) Rapture of the saints and "the appearing of...Christ Jesus" as the Revelation of Christ at the end of the 70th Week, is to incorrectly understand the verse. Therefore, there is not a distinct second and a third coming, rather one coming, one Parousia at which time God "sum[s] up ... all things in Christ" (Eph. 1:10).' ____________________ www.solagroup.org/ articles/faqs/faq_0011.html |
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538 | A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? Intro | Titus 2:13 | kalos | 169798 | ||
A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? IV By Rev. Bill Lee-Warner '4. When the student of prophecy studies the writings of the early church fathers, he discovers an interesting phenomenon: the vast majority of the Ante-Nicene Fathers (living between the end of the Apostolic age and A.D. 325) who wrote on the subject of the 2nd coming understood that the church in the latter days would face the persecution of Antichrist, which commences 3 1/2 years after the beginning of the 70th Week of Daniel (cf. Daniel 9:27; Matt. 24:15). 'The implication then is that the believer's hope (which includes the anticipation of the rapture) will be realized sometime after the midpoint of the 70th Week and after the beginning of the great tribulation at the hands of Antichrist. If this is the case, and Scripture abundantly supports this view (cf. the sequence in Matt. 24:3-31), then the clear teaching of Scripture on the coming of Christ, both for His church, and with wrath (the Day of the Lord - Zeph 1:14-18, and described as beginning with the cosmic lights being extinguished ((Joel 2:31; Matt. 24:29; Rev. 6:12-17)), is that the Rapture and the Day of the Lord occur on the same day (cf. Luke 17:26-30). Therefore, there is no time separation between the Rapture and the Revelation of Christ. 'The believer on that day will lift his head knowing that his "redemption is drawing near" (Luke 21:28) but the world at the same time will be in "perplexity at the roaring of the sea and the waves, men fainting from fear and the expectation of the things which are coming upon the world, (in context - because of the extinguishing of the cosmic luminaries) for the powers of the heavens will be shaken. And then will THEY (emphasis added) [in context - the people of the world] see the Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory." (Luke 1:25-27) 'In light of what Scripture records, Robert Gundry has written, "Every Ante-Nicene writer who wrote in any detail upon the tribulation, resurrection, rapture, or second coming ...[understood] ... the church will undergo persecution at the hands of Antichrist". That means that the Rapture takes place sometime after the persecution starts (the midpoint of the 70th Week) and is not prior to the 70th Week as the pretribulationist insists. Mr. Gundry goes on to say that the only outstanding early fathers missing (that taught differently) were Clement of Alexandria and Origin, who used an allegorical method of interpretation.' ____________________ www.solagroup.org/ articles/faqs/faq_0011.html |
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539 | A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? Intro | Titus 2:13 | kalos | 169796 | ||
A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? II-III By Rev. Bill Lee-Warner '2. In I Peter 1:13, Peter writes: "...fix your hope completely on the grace to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ." Peter understood that the believer realizes his "blessed hope" at the revelation of Jesus. It is interesting that Peter, who surely would have known if there was to be both a time period and a different focus or objective between the Rapture and the Revelation of Christ, did not even hint at such a difference. Rather, he simply says that the hope of the believer is to be realized "at the revelation of Jesus Christ". The conclusion one reaches based on this verse is that the blessed hope of the believer takes place at the same time as the revelation of Christ, the time when Christ comes to rescue the righteous (the rapture) and pour out His wrath on the wicked (the revelation, as per the pretrib definition). 'To use Titus 2:13 as a Scriptural base for establishing a pretribulation Rapture is a weak argument at best. Not only is the Rapture, separated from "the revelation of Jesus Christ", not the intention of the passage, it cannot be hermeneutically substantiated by any other verse in all the New Testament. '3. Paul reminds his young disciple, Titus, that believers are to look "for the blessed hope". The context of this verse gives us insight as to what is intended regarding the meaning. In verse 11, Paul is emphasizing the "grace of God" through which He has brought salvation to all men. Then, in verse 12, he appeals to that gift of God as the foundational motive for believers to live "righteously" and "godly in this present age" as they move toward that "blessed hope". 'In the New Testament, the hope of believers is mentioned over 50 times. As one traces the use of the word "hope" throughout the New Testament, one discovers that nowhere is the believer's hope ever understood to be limited to that of the Rapture of the saints. The Rapture is certainly included, but it is not the sole idea. On the contrary, the New Testament writers use the word to speak of the broad experience of being liberated from the effects of sin, experiencing the full blessing of their inheritance in Christ, and being unhindered in their worship and adoration of their Lord. 'To make the Rapture the entire focus of the believer's hope is to apply a meaning the New Testament writers did not intend. Certainly the Rapture is a part of the "blessed hope", albeit a significant part, but it is not the sole meaning.' ____________________ www.solagroup.org/ articles/faqs/faq_0011.html |
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540 | A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? Intro | Titus 2:13 | kalos | 169795 | ||
A 2nd and 3rd coming of Christ? I By Rev. Bill Lee-Warner '1. In Greek grammar, there is a rule known as Granville Sharp's rule, which says in simplified form that if two nouns of the same case are connected by the conjunction 'and' and if the definite article (the) is used preceding the first of the nouns and is not (necessarily) repeated before the second noun, the latter always relates to the same person or event described by the first noun as identical or at least similar. 'By using Grandville Sharp's rule in Titus 2:13, we see that the "and" joins "the blessed hope" and "the appearing of our ... Savior, Christ Jesus". The meaning of the conjunction "and" may be translated "even" or "also". It is therefore to be understood that the two phrases are equal in relationship. In other words, they are not two completely different time and event references, rather, they are both speaking of an event that has a common referent or focal point. 'A literal translation of Titus 2:13 would then be: '"...while we wait for the blessed hope even [the] glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,"' ____________________ www.solagroup.org/ articles/faqs/faq_0011.html |
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