Results 1681 - 1700 of 1999
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Results from: Notes Author: Ray Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1681 | Standing firm in one Spirit/spirit? | Phil 2:1 | Ray | 113669 | ||
Hi terrib, The dictionary says that a "mirror" is anything that gives a true representation or description. So when you talk about a "mirror meaning", it should give a true representation. Thinking of Jesus as an "it" would not be a true representation. Thinking of the Scriptures as Jesus Himself and thus worshipping the Bible would not be the true meaning. Scripture tells us that we must believe that Jesus came in the flesh. Jesus is more than the words and thoughts of God. The Scriptures are the word of God; and the Word was God. I know of no Scripture where it talks of the Word [sic] of God. 1) The comparison you made was not a mirror meaning because they didn't match up because of the "it" pronouns. 2) Yet, I agree that there are indeed mirror meanings when we compare Scripture with Scripture and spiritual thoughts with spiritual words. An example might be Isaiah 55:11 with John 1:12. Isaiah 55:11, "So shall My/ word be which goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me empty, Without accomplishing what (I) desire, And without succeeding in the matter for which I sent it." John 1:12, "But as many as received Him/, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in (His) name, who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." So, we can say that we receive Him/ and we receive His/ word. What (He) desires is that we believe in (Him). From the heart, Ray |
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1682 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Phil 2:7 | Ray | 72089 | ||
Hi Jesified, I appreciate your post but I am late in taking note of it. I must wait until a better time to answer fully. Are you using the NIV? You have answered with Philippians 2:7. The word "nature" is not the word in the Greek. The word is "morphe", Strong's #3444 meaning, "form, shape". Philippians 2:6 talks about the "form of God" and verse 7 talks about the "form of a bond-servant". Both are #3444. So Philippians 2:7 is not talking about a human nature as we think of it. He emptied Himself taking the form of a bond-servant, and being in the likeness of men. But I believe that He was found in appearance as a Man. I believe that He was God's Servant taking the form of a bond-servant. One source that I use translates Philippians 2:6,7, "who subsisting in the form of God thought it not robbery to be equal with God, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a slave, becoming in the likeness of men". Note the "subsisting" rather than "existing". I will have to talk with you later about some of our differing outlooks. I think of the one Seed of Abraham. I see Jesus as the Son of David, the Son of Joseph, and the Son of Abraham. I see Jesus as the Lamb of God and as a Passover lamb without blemish. In the Lord's Supper, I think that we drink the blood of the Man. I will also have to take issue with your understanding of Job 15:14. I have been asking this question of why people think that we need to think of Jesus as a man for some time now. I welcome your input and hoping to talk with you later when I am more awake also. From the heart, Ray |
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1683 | explain Kenosis | Phil 2:7 | Ray | 109523 | ||
Hi Emmaus, Your post spoke of distinguishing between "form" and "substance". I thank you for that thought which led me to consider the Greek words for "form". I plan to talk to Mommapbs about that soon. Another word for substance might be "essence" and so I offer this idea to you for thought or discussion. The thought of being of one mind, one accord, having the same love, being like-minded are the thoughts of Philippians 2:2 and it is suggested in verse 5, "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus". John 10:30 came to my mind for comparison in that the Father and Son are of one "essence" and of a unity. John 10:30, "I and the Father are one." Phillipians 2:5, NKJ, "Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, being in the form of God/, did not consider it robbery (Or, something to be held onto to be equal) to be equal with God..." Jesus came in the form of a bond-servant, in the likeness of men, but in appearance He was a Man. He didn't wear a halo over His head, but in essence He was one with the Father. John 10:33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man [Man, NKJ], make Yourself/ out to be God." See Phil 2:5 above; the slash marks are mine for comparison/contrast. Thanks again for your thoughts. From the heart, Ray |
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1684 | explain Kenosis | Phil 2:7 | Ray | 109537 | ||
Hi CDBJ, I see these verses as showing a comparison and contrast of the Persons. But it also shows how the two Persons are glorified together. The comparison I see is: "neither the Son, but the Father" with "together with Thyself, Father". That is the glory that He had before the world was. That is the glory He set aside while He came to earth. I observe two things that would be important in a study of these passages. The first one is in John 17:1 where our manuscripts offer the choice of "the Son" or "Your Son" may glorify Thee. The other thing to consider is the order of the pronouns in John 17:5. That will determine how we compare the Son along with or together with the Father alone. In other words, our choices are: John 17:5, KJ, "And now, O Father, glorify (thou) **me with *thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." Six pronouns of Deity. John 17:5, NASB, "And now, glorify Thou (Me) together with **Thyself, *Father, with the glory which I had with Thee before the world was." Six pronouns of Deity. John 17:4, NKJ, "I have glorified You on the earth. I have finished the work which You have given Me to do. [One extra pronoun] 5 And now, O (Father), glorify **Me together with *Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was." Only five pronouns of Deity. Mark 13:31, "Heaven and earth will pass away, but (My) words will not pass away. But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the **Son, but the *Father alone." John 17:8, "for the words which Thou gavest Me (I) have given to them; and they received them, and truly understood that **I came forth from *Thee,..." I hope that everyone sees that the Son came forth from the Father. He left the glory that was with the Father Himself. He manifested the Father's name. Right now I would go with the NKJ for John 17:4,5. Did any of these comparisons make sense? From the heart, Ray |
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1685 | Please explain | Phil 2:7 | Ray | 141491 | ||
Hi BradK, John 1:1, "...and the **Word was *God." Psalm 90:2, "...Even from everlasting to everlasting, **Thou art *God." Philippians 2:8, "...**He humbled *Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." I would not infer that Philippians 2:8 shows that Christ ceased to be God. The important thing to see in Philippians 2:8 is that He was found to be in appearance as a (Man); in the likeness of men as a bond-servant, yet still always a Man in the image of God. Genesis 1:26, "Then (God) said, "Let **Us make man in *Our image,... From the heart, Ray |
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1686 | Please explain | Phil 2:7 | Ray | 141570 | ||
Hi Janae, Your version of choice here does not include the words "God did". For it was God who condemned sin in the flesh. It is the the law of the Spirit --of life in Christ Jesus that sets us free. Romans 8:3, "For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 in order that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit." From the heart, Ray |
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1687 | What is God's Son's name? | Phil 2:9 | Ray | 107425 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, I like to make mention of you also, and thank God through Jesus Christ for all of you. Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Romans 1:7,8. I like to think of the one Spirit when thinking of the Father and the Son. I wonder if the Spirit's name is important for those who are called of Jesus Christ? Consider Romans 1:5 What are your thoughts about the Spirit [Or, spirit] of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord? Romans 1:4. Also, 1Cor 6:17, 1 Cor 12:11. From the heart, Ray |
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1688 | What is God's Son's name? | Phil 2:9 | Ray | 108459 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, Thanks for getting back with me on this. I trust you had a busy holiday with family and it is good that you had that time away from the forum. I think that we agree on Spirit for 1 Cor 12:11 and I also agree that the use of spirit is appropriate for 1 Corinthians 6:16. The thing I would talk more with you is your linking of our spirit "with His Spirit". 1 Cor 6:17 reads "But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit [with Him]." The "with Him" is not in the Greek. So I would say that the you and I and the spirits of other believers who join together with the Lord, are one spirit. We are the body of Christ. We are one spirit, even the body of Christ, but we are not "one spirit with Him." I would also go with the NKJ for its inclusion of the phrase [and in your spirit, which are God's.] 1 Corinthians 6:20, NKJ, "For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are God's." We are not our own. We are for the Lord; and the Lord is for the body. 2) Romans 1:4: You ask a good question with your "Spirit of holiness vs spirit of holiness? How does this change the meaning?" If we capitalize "Spirit of holiness" then this equates Jesus Christ our Lord with the Spirit. I would suppose that the NKJ got away from that equation by putting "Jesus Christ our Lord" in verse 3 instead of verse 4. Romans 1:3,4, NKJ, "concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness, by the resurrection of the dead. 5 Through Him we have received..." Romans 1:3,4, NASB, "concerning His Son, who was born of a descendant of David, according to the flesh, who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit [marginal note, Or, spirit] of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord, 5 through whom we have received..." I believe that the Greek should be the NASB "through whom" and we should render it the "spirit of holiness" and put the "Jesus Christ our Lord" wherever you want. (I prefer in verse 4). 3) I'll leave your "Who can have a "spirit of holiness?" for a later post; but I believe that that question is answered in Romans 1:5. What do you think? From the heart, Ray |
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1689 | Folks, It's Time for A Change! | Phil 2:14 | Ray | 5232 | ||
Hi Jim, I love to talk about the Oneness of God because that's what got me into the study of the Trinity years ago. I'll be glad to talk about it anytime. If you do talk to me about anything, you'll have to remember that I'm involved in capitalization. For instance, you write that you are afraid that people will decide "that God was anything but one." What would you say if I'm afraid that people will decide "that God is anything but One?" The NASB reads in John 10:30,"I and the Father are one." I hope that in a new copyright translation that they will capitalize the word One. The NKJ John l0:30 reads, "I and My Father are one." That is an acceptable translation to me also. It is harder to understand how "I and My" can be be linked together as one, but no one said that the coming of God to earth was a simple thing to explain. In other words, any discussion is only fruitful if the Deity of Christ is accepted by the parties. Can I talk to you about another word that you did not capitalize? I capitalize the word Truth; for instance, John 8:32, "If you continue in My word, then you are truly disciples of Mine; and you will know the Truth, and the Truth will make you free." and v.36, ...the Son does remain forever. So if the Son makes you free, you will be free indeed.'" I do believe that we should all continue to search for and proclaim the truth as you have stated. Now, maybe you can help me decide on another capitalization problem I haven't decided on. Phil 2:16 reads, actually it is the end of the sentence of the scripture of this tree, "...holding fast the word of life, so that in the day of Christ I may have cause to glory because I did not run in vain nor toil in vain." You capitalized the word "Life" with 2Timothy 2:14 in mind, "handling accurately the word of truth.'" As I said above we should all continue to search for the truth in God's word. I think that I agree with your capitalization. I was also considering capitalizing Philippians 1:27, "standing firm in one Spirit, with one mind striving together for the faith of the gospel." So my question to you is this, "Which one of these words would you think should be capitalized as speaking of the Deity of Christ?" |
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1690 | spirit/Spirit? | Phil 3:3 | Ray | 54610 | ||
Hi John Reforemed, My purpose is to point out the importance of capitalization and to consider which references speak of spirit and which references speak of Spirit. But I will have to get back with you later. From the heart, Ray |
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1691 | What is the believer's true relationship | Phil 3:20 | Ray | 131253 | ||
Hi Doctrinsogracd, That was interesting information. Good post. In other words, "in the world" but not "of" the world, for we are people of the temple. From the heart, Ray |
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1692 | What is the believer's true relationship | Phil 3:20 | Ray | 131269 | ||
Hi Doctrinsograce, I love it when forum members are working on the things of God at the same time. I wonder if you would read the post I just completed. The question that I was going to ask next in that post was "What have we received?" You have written here about what the world has to offer and you recognize that some of these things are good. Can we put then in lower case some of the things that we have received from God. In other words, consider 1 Corinthians 2:12. 1 Cor 2:12, NASB, "For we have received , not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, that we might know the things freely given to us by God. 1 Cor 2:12, KJ, Thompson 1908, "Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit [sic] which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given us of God." Are you open to an interpretation of "receiving the spirit which is from God"; a holy spirit? Are you open to the idea that God provides us with His word [sic], His holy spirit, for it enlightens us? From the heart, Ray |
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1693 | Please explain Phil 4:19 | Phil 4:19 | Ray | 70083 | ||
Hi Steve, I agree that our greatest blessing is to know Christ as our Savior. The blessing that God wants to give most are spiritual blessings. Even Paul did not speak from want of temporal things for he was happy in all circumstances. When I studied with you (at least at the same time) the riches that we have in Christ, I found that the riches that God gives are the riches of His mercy, love, kindness, grace, forbearance, patience, and finally giving us an inheritance. Our greatest need is a spirit of wisdom and of revelation in the knowledge of Him. Romans 1:17, "that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give to you a spirit of wisdom and of revelation in the knowledge of Him./ Phil 4:19, "And my God shall supply all your needs according to His/ riches in glory in Christ Jesus." Phil 1:11, "having been filled with the fruit of righteousness which comes through Jesus/Christ, to the glory and praise of God." Proverbs 9:10, "The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom, And the knowledge of the Holy One/ is understanding. 10:3, "The Lord will not allow the [soul of the] righteous to hunger, But He will thrust aside the craving of the wicked. 22 It is the blessing of the (Lord) that makes rich, And He adds no sorrow to it." Romans 11:33, "Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His/ judgments and unfathomable His ways! 34 For who has known the mind of the Lord, or who became (His) counselor? 35 Or who has first given to Him that it might be paid back to him again?" Ephesians 1:3, "Blessed be the God and (Father) of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him/ before the foundation of the world,..." Romans 9:22, "What if (God), although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so in order that He might make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He/ prepared beforehand for glory, 24 even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles." We have received of His fulness as John 1:16 says and we have His joy in us so that we can be happy in whatever circumstance of life. From the heart, Ray |
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1694 | Please explain Phil 4:19 | Phil 4:19 | Ray | 70088 | ||
Hi graceful, Did you change some words in your quote of 2 Peter 1:2-4 or is there another version out there that I don't know about? You have done some good work and thinking here. I like to be thinking of the same things at the same time here on the forum. I was asking about the version because I go with the NASB for verse 3 in that it reads "through the true knowledge of Him who called us by His own glory and excellence." This goes better I believe with verse 10, "Therefore, brethren, be all the more diligent to make certain about His calling and choosing you;..." The blessing of being called by (God) and being (His) people is a good study for believers. From the heart, Ray |
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1695 | Please explain Phil 4:19 | Phil 4:19 | Ray | 70225 | ||
Hi graceful, Thank you for answering my post. I was interested in seeing if there was another translation out there that was capitalizing pronouns of Deity. I had taken note that the first time you quoted the passsage you had said, "His divine power". Now I see that you had capitalized "His" on your own. I praise God with you. Praise the Lord for He is good! From the heart, Ray P.S. I agree with vine, life source, and supply also. :) |
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1696 | Being in the Beloved? | Col 1:12 | Ray | 137206 | ||
Hi STTIL, Welcome to the forum and I appreciate your thoughts. As one interested in capitalization of each Person of the trinity I would want to talk to you about "Love" and "Body", but I will write later when I am fresher. The thought that "He has delivered us from the power of darkness" and it is "to the praise of the glory of His grace" is a good thought. We are saved by the grace of God and "there we go if not for grace". From the heart, Ray |
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1697 | In Whom, in whom, or in Him? | Col 1:14 | Ray | 137328 | ||
Hi Tim, All of us are looking forward to many more of your two cents... :-) The "WHO" [Who or who] is a pronoun but sometimes the same pronoun is translated He; is it not? Ephesians 1:11, NASB, "also [marginal note, Lit, in whom] we have obtained an inheritance,..." Ephesians 1:11, NKJ, "In Him also we have obtained an inheritance,..." So the "WHO" can be translated either "Who [Who or who]," or "He [He or he]" depending on capitalization policies of the versions]. 1) Personally, if the "WHO [Who] is chosen in the translation then that is good with me. But, again personally as a counter of pronouns I would find the capitalized Who a distraction in my counting. 2) Expressed another way, I think of "in Him" as speaking of the Person; and "in (w)Whom as speaking of the essence of oneness. If that makes any sense, let me know. From the heart, Ray |
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1698 | In Whom, in whom, or in Him? | Col 1:14 | Ray | 137365 | ||
Hi Doc Trinsograce, I appreciate your question to me that led me to start this thread. Your time and work is also appreciated. Your search was done in the KJV, and you wrote that you did "not find the Greek word (Strong's G3739) translated as "He" anywhere in the KJV." Of course you realize that a capitalized "He" will not be found in the KJV. And at this stage, I would not see the translation team having a new copyright with every "who" and "whom" capitalized, let alone the "he" and "him" occurances in their KJV. 1) When we look at other versions we see the "In whom" #3739 with "In Him" as the translation. Ephesians 1:7, NKJ, before us being an example. 2) I would encourage you to read my post to Tim in this thread and tell me if that made any sense to you. The idea of oneness is reflected in my mind when looking at the #3739 of Colossians 2:3, "in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge." I believe that these things have been spoken of and discussed before as evidenced by the variant readings in manuscripts of Colossians 2:2. 3) I have to put my head on a pillow now for I have been struggling with a low grade fever for the past week. I am in a new series of chemo therapy. You might pray for me and I for you, as you have alluded to being busy in school studies. From the heart, Ray |
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1699 | did i miss something? | Col 2:8 | Ray | 78506 | ||
Hi Lionstrong, I know that this is an old post but tell me more about "a free study Bible with an unlimitd margin." Mark did not offer any thoughts to you. I would offer a comparison of Col 2:8 with John 15, perhaps verse 3. John 15:3, "You are already clean because of the word which I have spoken to you." From the heart, Ray |
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1700 | did i miss something? | Col 2:8 | Ray | 78764 | ||
Hi Lionstrong, Your thought was that a Christian philosophy should come from the perspective of the Holy Scriptures. John 15:3 says to me that the word that was spoken, the Holy Scriptures, has already prepared them. Now all they, and in application, all we have to do is abide in Him and walk in Him as Colossians 2:6 says. The branch that walks in Him bears fruit and walks in Him or else it is taken away. Every branch that is firmly rooted in the vine bears fruit because He prunes it and establishes it, being built up in Him. I see the relevance of Col 2:8 with John 15:3 in that we have Christ, and we have no need of anything else. We are already pruned and ready to bear fruit because of the word of truth. Not only do His words abide in us , John 15:10, but He abides with you and He will be in us, John 14:17. Apart from the Holy Spirit we can do nothing. We need to keep His word also as He teaches us all things and reminds us of all the things that Jesus said to us. John 3:25, "The woman said to Him, "I know that Messiah is coming (He who is called Christ); when that One comes, He will declare all things to us." John 14:24, "He who does not love Me does not keep My words; and the word which you hear is not Mine, but of the One who sent Me, the Father. So I see all three Person of the triune God speaking the words of God. This is my Christian "philosophy" which is taken from the word of God. I hope to know Him better and better, and the Holy Scriptures is all I need. John 14:7, "If you had known Me, you would have known My *Father also; from now on you know Him, and have seen Him." John 14:25, "These things *I have spoken to you while abiding with you. John 15:3, "You are already clean because of the word which *I have spoken to you." I hope that some of this makes sense to you. From the heart, Ray |
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