Results 1481 - 1500 of 1999
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Results from: Notes Author: Ray Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1481 | Temple of the Holy Spirit | 1 Cor 6:19 | Ray | 105443 | ||
Hi Ngop, You have evidently done some deep thinking about the Holy Spirit. You have talked about the Breath of God. I would have you consider that the breath that was breathed into Adam was not the Spirit Himself. I would also have you consider that the Spirit in Ezekiel 11:19 says "And I shall give them one heart, and shall put a new spirit within them. And I shall take the heart of stone out of their flesh and give them a heart of flesh, that they may walk in My statutes and keep My ordinances, and do them. Then they will be My people, and I shall be their God." When we become a Christian we are given a new spirit. Ezekiel 18:30ff says, "Repent and turn away from all your transgressions, so that iniquity may not become a stumbling block to you. Cast away from you all your transgressions which you have committed, and make yourselves a new heart and a new spirit! For why will you die, O house of Israel?" When we join ourselves to the Lord we are one spirit. 1 Corinthians 6:17, "But the one who joins himself to the Lord is one spirit [with Him]." Emmaus has pointed out that we are physical and spiritual. It would be good to consider that as we look at 1 Corinthians 6:20. Right now I have in my personal copy written in pencil, "and in your spirit, which are God's." So I would go with the NKJ, "For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your body and in your spirit, which are God's." 1 John 3:24, Ephesians 5:30, and Romans 7:4 might be considered while you look at what kind of body we are and just who and/or what we have in us. From the heart, Ray |
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1482 | is it wrong to masterbate? | 1 Cor 7:9 | Ray | 2341 | ||
l Corinthians 7:1b,..."it is good for a man not to touch a woman." In this day and age of equality, we'd have to say also that it is good for a woman not to touch a man. Verse 2, "But because of immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband." We can't all find a mate or keep a mate but if we seek one we seek a person that is not taken. "The husband must fulfill his duty to his wife, and likewise also the wife to her husband. The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does; and likewise also the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does." This is saying that the husband and wife have to be available and capable. They don't deprive each other of sexual activities, and in regard to your question, they don't masturbate if its going to interfere with their fulfilling their duty to each other. If they need some time for themselves and their relationship with God, they agree on a time period, and then fulfill their duty to their marital commitments when they come together again. Personally, I would think that they could masturbate during this time period. I wouldn't command it, but it could be plausible and understandable. Is that what Paul is saying? I think that if you want to be celibate and have sexual feelings and you don't masturbate, then you can be tempted by Satan all the more. But I'm not commanding you. It's certainly best to think on other things and pray. Just remember that the feelings will still be there and Satan will continue to tempt you to enter into sin and not be celibate. You may be tempted at a time when you don't expect it. Charlie Shedd, a writer when I was growing up and considering these things, was said to have called masturbation a "gift from God". Whether he was considering l Cor 7:7 or not I don't know. But there are certainly people with physical handicaps but yet with sexual needs that would consider it a gift. I would say that masturbation is self-control. Use it for a time if you need to, but spend time in prayer and you can use your time of singleness to do the work of God that married people don't have the time to do. l Cor 7:323, "But I want you to be free from concern. One who is unmarried is conceerned about the things of the Lord, how he may please the Lord; but one who is married is concerned about the things of the world, how he may please his wife, and his interests are divided. The woman who is unmarried, and the virgin, is concerned about the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and spirit;...This I say for your own benefit; not to put a restraint upon you, but to promote what is appropriate and to secure undistracted devotion to the Lord." I hope whatever I said that is from God may be helpful to you. |
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1483 | is it wrong to masterbate? | 1 Cor 7:9 | Ray | 141931 | ||
Hi Russ, In comparing these Scriptures, I think that we can see how it should be in the kingdom of God. The kingdom has high standards certainly; for even when a man looks at a woman with lust for her, he commits adultery with her in his heart. This is called adultery whether masturbation is involved or not. In other words, masturbation is not spoken against here, but rather it is talking of the condition of ones' heart especially in regard to relationships. I don't believe that masturbation would be so bad, that we should cut off our hands or male body part in order not to go to hell. There is no law against masturbation. I would compare Matt 5:25-32 with 1 Cor 6:11, "And such were some of you, but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ..." We are under the law of the Spirit of our God. 1 Cor 6:12 goes on and says, "All things are lawful for me, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful for me, but I will not be mastered by anything." If we keep our minds on the things of God we will not be mastered by anything. From the heart, Ray |
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1484 | Can one have the Spirit of God? | 1 Cor 7:40 | Ray | 108508 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, Paul entreats the believers to walk in the Spirit, to live in the Spirit, and in 1 Corinthians 3:16 says, "Do you not know that you are a temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwells in you?" So I would say that Paul KNOWS that he has the Spirit of God dwelling in him. But in 1 Corinthians 7:40 he says, "and I THINK that I also have the *spirit of God." He thinks that he knows the mind of God. He thinks that he knows what God would say. So my thinking on this is that the verse is not talking about the Person (Spirit), but rather about the minds, thoughts, words (spirit) of God. 2) My interpretation of 2 Corinthians 1:21,22 for what it is worth: "Now He who establishes us with you in Christ and anointed us is God; [the One] who also sealed us and gave us the *spirit in our hearts as a pledge." 3) Ephesians 1:13, "In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation--having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the *holy *spirit of promise, who is given as a pledge..." Whenever a gift, a pledge, a promise, is GIVEN, I think lower case spirit. When the Giver of the gift is spoken of I think of Spirit. Those are my thoughts. From the heart, Ray |
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1485 | Can one have the Spirit of God? | 1 Cor 7:40 | Ray | 108513 | ||
Hi REX, Thank you for your post. In your listing of what the Bible says about the Holy Spirit, number three is most applicable for my question here. I would speak of the gift of the holy spirit. God gives us the holy spirit. Please feel free to answer the above post to Mommapbs or here. From the heart, Ray |
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1486 | Can one have the Spirit of God? | 1 Cor 7:40 | Ray | 108563 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, The first chapter of Ephesians is a good passage to study to see how the translators deal with "in whom" or "in Him". Ephesians 1:13 for instance in my Study Bible has "In Him, you also,..." with a marginal note saying [Lit., whom]. A comparison of the NASB and the NKJ for verses 10 and11 is indicative of the same choices to be made in interpretation and translation. However, to capitalize "Who" would be confusing to my mind. I would complete the sentence and start with a capitalized pronoun in the next rather than capitalize Who. 1) Another thing to consider in studying Ephesians 1:14 is the difference in manuscripts for "who is given as a pledge". The NU copy has a letter that is translated "which" while another Interlinear that I have in what I believe is a TR text, has letters which translate as "who". So I believe that it would be safe to say that this discussion that we are having is nothing new. From the heart, Ray |
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1487 | Dietary Law Today | 1 Cor 8:1 | Ray | 94225 | ||
Hi Got it!!!, I wonder if I can get your thoughts on #93092 or one similar where I speak of the *spirit of God. I notice that you talk about adhering to "the spirit of the law (love) - not the letter." You also spoke of "not adhering to the Spirit [sic], but listening to deceiving spirits". Can I get you to consider putting that in lower case as well? From the heart, Ray |
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1488 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 130623 | ||
Hi Tim, I don't believe that we have to prove that there are no other "gods". There are indeed other lords and gods. However there is only one God. Isaiah 43:10 says that "Before Me there was no God [NASB and NKJ] formed, And there will be none after Me." Key however, to the discussion with the JW is that "there is no Savior besides Me". That capitalization is the interpretation that I believe we should realize. There is no strange god among you Isaiah 43:12 says. This Jesus is not a strange god, He is God come in the flesh. He and the Father are one. In order for the JW to be true witnesses of the Lord God, they would have to realize that there is only one Savior. Isaiah 43:12, "It is I who have declared and saved and proclaimed, And there was no strange god among you; So you are *My witnesses", declares the *Lord, "And I am God." John 10:30, "*I and the *Father are one." From the heart, Ray |
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1489 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 130842 | ||
Hi Tim, You wrote, "There are many things that people call 'gods', but God is quite clear that there is no other god but Him. I can take some wood, shape it into an idol, worship it, and call it my god - but it remains a piece of wood! :-) Isaiah does not say, 'There are no other Gods but me'! It says, 'I am 'elohim' and there are no other 'elohim' besides Me! The first sentence brings forth the question from me, "Is God a god?" You said that God is quite clear that there is no other god [sic] but Him. Your last sentence has some questionable grammar regarding plurality. "There are no other 'elohim' besides Me." needs a reference Scripture. I agree with you in principle. 2 Kings 5:15, "..."Behold now, I know that there is no God in all the earth, but in Israel;..." Isaiah 44:6, "...And there is no God besides Me." For Isaiah 45:21 I offer this interpretation. "(I) declare things that are upright...Is is not I, the Lord? And there is no other [god] besides Me, A righteous God and a Savior; There is none except Me/." Isaiah 45:6, "That men may know from the rising to the setting sun That there is no one besides Me. I am the (Lord), and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God." Isaiah 45:22, "Turn to Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth; For I am (God), and there is no other." From the heart, Ray |
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1490 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 130896 | ||
Hi Tim, You have not given a Scripture reference yet for "I am elohim and besides me there is no other elohim". If you have in mind Isaiah 45:21, I have given you my interpretation of the verse; namely, that "there is no other [leaving out (g)God or making it lower case "god"] besides Me". The idea of the context is that there is no other god who can save. Verse 20 talks about how they "carry about their wooden idol, And pray to a god who cannot save". The Jehovah's Witness who looks to another god in John 1:1 will find one who can not save for they deny that the Word is God. They need a Savior. This One, this Savior, says that there is no other [god] besides Him. The "This One" of John 1:1 was in the beginning with God. 1) God came to earth and dwelt among us. There is no strange god among us. Isaiah 45:14, "...Surely God is with you, and there is none else, No other (God)." 15 "Truly, Thou art a God who hides Himself, O God of Israel, Savior." Israel has been saved by the Lord; Isaiah 45:17. There is none else, no other God; verse 14. What are some other verses to consider for "no other elohim"? From the heart, Ray |
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1491 | Do you believe in "Me, the only God?" | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 131127 | ||
Hi lakerep, You are thinking of another Scripture reference than pcdarcan and me. Pcarcan in #130927 above was speaking of Isaiah 45:5. From the heart, Ray |
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1492 | Still waiting.... | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 131129 | ||
Hi pcdarcan, I am interested in hearing an answer about "there is not another Me, God". Isaiah 45:5 is interesting to compare translations. The NWT is noteworthy. "I am Jehovah, and there is no one else. With the exception of me there is no God. I shall closely gird you, although you have not known me,..." From the heart, Ray |
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1493 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 132118 | ||
Hi Tim, I understand that you are not interested at the moment in capitalization. However, I think that you are needlessly fighting for the idea that there are no gods. What you should be stressing, IMO, is that there are no OTHER GODS. What the Scriptures teach is that Jehovah says "There is no God besides Me." My fear is that you will feel called upon to declare that there are no other "lords". Deuteronomy 10:17, "For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who shows no partiality nor takes a bribe." The Scriptures that you gave me, Isa 44:6, 45:5 and 46:9, do not have the "OTHER GODS" phrase that I am looking for. I think that capitalization is important in discussing Scriptures with the Jehovah's Witnesses because of John 1:1. We do not want them to think that Jesus was a god, indeed a strange god, among us when He came to earth. John 1:2, "This One was in the beginning with God." From the heart, Ray |
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1494 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 132125 | ||
Hi pcdarcan, 2 Corinthians 4:4 talks of Satan as being "the god of this world" and I would not argue with you about that. But why would we want to put the Christ in the same light and call (h)Him a god? Why would you want to see Satan and Jesus in the same light, and call them both "gods". What we want to gain from the verse is that Christ is to be seen in the light of the gospel. We should see the glory of Christ who is the image of God. 2 Corinthians 4:6, "For God, who said, "Light shall shine out of darkness," is the One who has shone in our hearts to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Christ." The only begotten Son [God] is not a god. From the heart, Ray |
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1495 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 132144 | ||
Hi Tim, The only context of "There is no other elohim but me" that I am aware of is your Isaiah 45:21 reference. The verse is surrounded by occasions of "there is no other", "none else", "none except Me"; but the 45:21 reference is the only one for "There is no "other" God besides Me." The NWT of the Jehovah's Witness says this: Isaiah 45:21, "[Who] has reported it from that very time? Is it not I, Jehovah, besides whom there is no other God; a rigteous God and a Savior, there being none excepting me?" The question is "Who has reported it?" A question for you Tim, how do you interpret Isaiah 45:19? Would you go with the NKJ "I declare things that are right" or with the NASB "Declaring things that are right"? From the heart, Ray |
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1496 | No other God besides Me? | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 134913 | ||
Hi Mark, Thank you for the Scriptures. None of them except Isaiah 45:21 have what I am looking for; the words in order of "no other God besides Me". Isaiah 44:8 says "Is there any God besides Me? Or is there any other Rock? I know of none." So that is close to what I am looking for because it has "any God besides"; but what I am looking for is "no other God besides". Isaiah 45:21 has "no other God besides" but it is the only one that I know of so far. My point or hypothesis is that this verse should have a lower case "elohim" (meaning gods) in the verse. So I would interpret the verse as saying, "Is it not I, the Lord? And there is no other besides Me." This is what the verses in the chapter are saying: 45:6, "I am the Lord, and there is no other." 45:22, "...For I am God, and there is no other." 1) If "elohim" is in the Hebrew manuscript and is not merely implied, then I would interpret Isaiah 45:22, "Is it not I, the Lord? And there is no other gods besides Me." We do have "no other gods besides me" in the Scriptures, notably Exodus 20:3, "You shall have no other gods before [Or, besides] Me." Thank you for your help. I hope that I am clear in what I am saying and looking for. From the heart, Ray |
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1497 | For Ray! :-) | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 137896 | ||
Hi Tim, I don't know how this post snuck by us without being answered, but I am happy to be able to talk with you once more on the subject. We've already had a good discussion on this verse I see. We both have looked at John 1:1,2 and see it as correctly interpretted as saying that the Word was God, not a god. This One [He,the Son, the only begotten God] was in the beginning with God. We have considered the Greek and realize that it does not capitalize. But I would have you comitted to an understanding of capitalization in the English language. And as I have said in regards to John 1:1, it is important to distinguish between "god" and "God". I would say that God is not a god; but rather, that He is God. 1) Scripture tells us that there are indeed many lords and many gods, but there is only one God, one Lord, one Spirit. 2) Deuteronomy 4:35, "To you it was shown that you might know that the (Lord), He is God; there is no other besides **Him." Deuteronomy 5:6, "(I) am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery. You shall have no other gods before [Or, besides] **Me. Isaiah 45:20, NKJ, "(I) declare things that are right. 21b Who has declared this from ancient time? Who has told it from that time? Have not I, the Lord? And [there is] no other God besides Me,..." Could we not in that last sentence say "And [there is to be] no other gods besides **Me,..."? That would be comparable to the Deuteronomy passages. 3) I want to speak to this post of yours now. You have expressed to me that the Greek does not deal with capitalization and you have not been interested in capitalization. However, I feel that you are trying to have it both ways as can be seen in your comments here. a) Is 43:10: You have gone with the NIV rather than the NASB, NKJ, or the KJ. "Before me no god was formed," This lower case implies that God is a god. b) Is. 44:6: The verse reads "apart from me there is no God" yet your comment is that it clearly says "apart from God there is no god." "There is no God" and "there is no god" is not the same thing. c) Is. 44:8 "Is there any God besides me?". You see the verse as asking if "there is any god besides God?" "Any God besides me" and "any god besides God" is not saying the same thing. d) Is. 45:14: "God is with you, and there is no other;" Verse 18: "I am the Lord, and there is no other." And yet you go with the NIV for verse 14 where it says that "there is no other god." I can not see why you go with the NIV which again implies that God is a god. e) Is. 45:21 I have already considered by saying that there is to be no other gods before Him. He is the only One able to save. A righteous God and a Savior, there is none other. f) Is 46:5: To whom would you liken (Me), And make Me equal and compare Me, That we [sic] should be alike?" We can not compare God with man; nor can we compare Him with a god, for there is no one like Him. God is not a god. From the heart, Ray |
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1498 | For Ray! :-) | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 137948 | ||
Hi Tim, We are pretty much set in our individual interpretations here so...all that is left to do is for me to call you a fool and you to call me a liar. :-) Then we can just go back as we were and join the rest of the forum. :-) I was comparing a couple of verses today and thought I might share them with you. I want us to continue to seek God and to find the one true God. Romans 3:4,..."Rather, let (God) be found true though every man be found a liar, as it is written, "THAT THOU MIGHTEST BE JUSTIFIED IN THY WORDS, AND MIGHTEST PREVAIL WHEN THOU ART JUDGED." Psalm 53:1, "The fool has said in his heart, "There is no [ELOHIM]," They are corrupt, and have committed abodminable injustice; There is no one who does good. 2 God has looked down from heaven upon the sons of men, To see if there is anyone who understands, Who seeks after (God). 3 Every one of them has turned aside; together they have become corrupt; There is no one who does good, not even one." If you can not find any reason to use capitalization and interpret through capitalization, I guess I can't argue it any more with you. Love you brother. From the heart, Ray |
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1499 | For Ray! :-) | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 137968 | ||
Hi Tim, Nobody wants to talk to me so I am back to bug you. :-) You wrote in 2) that you would go with "There is no other". I compared Deut 4:35 with Deut 5:7 with you already; and I wonder about Isaiah 45:21. Do you know if the Hebrew has actual word "God" in the phrase "And there is no other (gods)God before Me"? In other words is the word in the actual Hebrew so that we would even have to make the decision for lower or upper case? From the heart, Ray |
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1500 | For Ray! :-) | 1 Cor 8:5 | Ray | 137994 | ||
Hi Tim, Thank you for your work here. So the key is the "no 'elohim' ELSE besides me". Or in English "no OTHER 'elohim' besides me". The verses that I would note then to compare are Deut 5:7, "You shall have no other gods before [Margin note, Or besides] Me." and Isaiah 45:21, "And there is no other gods besides Me." From the heart, Ray |
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