Results 441 - 460 of 787
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Results from: Notes Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Verse |
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441 | Repost of ID# 56104 by stokeyhk | John 9:24 | Radioman2 | 86712 | ||
[Repost of ID# 56104 by stokeyhk. How ya doing, Steve. You seem to be the ... stokeyhk Sat 07/27/02, 3:19am] How ya doing, Steve. You seem to be the only one who wants to talk to me now! You know, those modern translations that you use'll be the death of you. What is ESV anyway? 1) As you may know, the Greek word rendered worship is "proskyneo." Strong says this word means: "to fawn or crouch to, i.e. (lit. or fig.) prostrate oneself in homage (do reverence to, adore)." a) "Jesus said to him: 'Go away, Satan! For it is written, "It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service."'" b) Jesus said: "The true worshipers will worship the Father with spirit and truth, for, indeed, the Father is looking for suchlike ones to worship him." From these two verses, we can see that Jesus taught us to render exclusive worship to his Father. "Proskyneo" is rendered as "worship," but not exclusively so. For example: the NIV renders it "fall down" in Revelation 3:9, and "fell on his knees before him" in Matthew 18:26. Why? Context! Whereas the KJV renders them as "worship" and "worshipped." What about in the case of Jesus? Should it be rendered as "worship" or as "fall down"? Consider Mark 15:19. Here the KJV renders it as "worshipped" regarding what the soldiers did to Jesus. However, the NIV renders it as "falling on their knees, they paid homage to him." Why? Context again! They clearly did not view Jesus as God or as a deity. As "bow before" (AT), 'pay homage' (NEB) and 'do obeisence' (NWT) are in harmony with the Greek, with Jesus' comments at Matthew 4:10 and John 4:23, and the angels comments at Revelation 22:9, these individuals who 'performed proskyneo' to Jesus were doing so because they recognized Jesus as God's representative and as "the Son of God." (Matthew 14:32, 33) c) It was angels, not humans, who, as the New English Bible says, 'paid homage' to Jesus in Hebrews 1:6. 2) As you rightly quoted, Isaiah said he heard Jehovah speak these words: "Whom shall I [Jehovah] send, and who will go for us [Jehovah and Jesus, John 12:39-41]?" So Isaiah heard Jehovah say, "us." Isaiah also "got to see [in vision, Exodus 33:20] Jehovah." Was John teaching that the Jehovah Isaiah saw was in fact the prehuman Jesus? Consider two things: a) John 12:38 calls Jesus "the arm of Jehovah." b) John 12:40 applies Isaiah 6:10 to Jesus showing that he was sent by Jehovah to do a preaching work. (Isaiah 61:1; Luke 4:16-21) The "glory" that Isaiah saw was, as John 1:14 says, "the glory as of the only begotten of the Father." (Genesis 1:26; Proverbs 8:30, 31) 3) Rather than Jesus being granted "life in himself" "from eternity," Isaiah 9:6 says Jesus would be called "Everlasting Father [life-giver] after he 'was born as a child' and glorified. (John 5:26, 27; 17:2) Thus being granted to have "life in himself" to eternity based on his 'ransom as the Son of man.' (Matthew 20:28) 4) Revelation 21:2 says: "I saw the Holy City, the New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God." This, then, is focusing on the earth and "men." (Verse 3) 5) Jesus said the Queen of the South "came from the ends of the earth to listen to Solomon's wisdom." Seems like Jesus didn't view him as losing sight of anything. The apostles' quotations from the Proverbs show this, too. The expression "under the sun" refers to a life excluding God's purpose which is indeed "meaningless." (Ecclesiastes 1:2, 3) Solomon was focusing on planet earth, whereas Peter was focusing on "ungodly men." (2 Peter 3:5-7, 10, 12, 13) Stokey |
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442 | Repost of ID# 86566 by Stokey | John 9:24 | Radioman2 | 86713 | ||
[Repost of ID# 86566 by Stokey. What happens to dead? Answer Bible general Stokey Thu 06/12/03, 10:54pm] Comparing Psalm 16:10 and footnote with Acts 2:31, we see that "Sheol," or the grave is the equivalent of "Hades." See Luke 16:23, footnote, NIV. What is the condition of people in Sheol or Hades? Ecclesiastes 9:5, 6, 10 answers: They "know nothing." Their love, hate and jealousy have "vanished." There is no "working nor planning nor knowledge nor wisdom." (Compare Job 3:11-19; 14:10-15; Psalm 104:29; John 11:11-14, 23-25.) Luke 16:13-31 is a parable as verse 26 shows. Compare verse 31 with John 11:47-53; 12:10, 11. Isaiah 14 is talking about the death of the Babylonian world empire; compare verses 18-20. Isaiah 66:24 is merely referring to "dead bodies" burning. Jesus contrasted "hell" with "life" in Mark 9:45-48. Incidently, in these verses, "hell" is the translation of the Greek "geenna," not "hades." "Gehenna" or the "lake of fire" refers to "the second death." (Revelation 20:10, 14) |
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443 | Repost of ID# 55729 by stokeyhk | John 9:24 | Radioman2 | 86816 | ||
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444 | Repost of ID# 56104 by stokeyhk | John 9:24 | Radioman2 | 86817 | ||
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445 | Repost of ID# 86566 by Stokey | John 9:24 | Radioman2 | 86818 | ||
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446 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 86856 | ||
Halting short of faith in Christ. Hebrews 6:4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost, "impossible "Hebrews 6:4-8 presents the case of Jewish professed believers who halt short of faith in Christ after advancing to the very threshold of salvation, even "going along with" the Holy Spirit in His work of enlightenment and conviction (John 16:8-10). It is not said that they had faith. This supposed person is like the spies at Kadesh-barnea (Deuteronomy 1:19-26) who saw the land and had the very fruit of it in their hands, and yet turned back. "partakers (Greek - iJlavskomai ," going along with)." Bibliography Information Scofield, C.I. "Scofield Reference Notes on Hebrews 6". "Scofield Reference Notes (1917 Edition)". http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/ScofieldReferenceNotes/ |
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447 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 86857 | ||
Heb 6:4-6 What does it mean...? Hebrews 6:4 "Enlightened. "They had received instruction in biblical truth which was accompanied by intellectual perception. Understanding the gospel is not the equivalent of regeneration. In John 1:9 it is clear that enlightening is not the equivalent of salvation. "Tasted the heavenly gift. "Tasting in the firurative sense in the NT refers to consciously experiencing someting. The experience might be momentary or continuing. Christ's 'tasting' of death was obviously momentary and not continuing or permanent. All men experience the goodness of God, but that does not mean they are all saved. Many Jews, during the Lord's earthly ministry experienced the blessings from heaven He brought -- in healings and deliverance from demons, as well as eating the food He created miraculously. Whether the gift refers to Christ or to the Holy Spirit, experiencing either one was not the equivalent of salvation. "Partakers of the Holy Spirit. "Even though the concept of partaking is used in Heb 3:1; 3:14; and 12:8 of a relationship which believers have, the context must be the final determining factor. This context in vv. 4-6 seems to preclude a reference to true believers. It could be a reference to their participation, as noted above, in the miraculous ministry of Jesus who was empowered by the Spirit or in the convicting ministry of the Holy Spirit which obviously can be resisted without experiencing salvation." (Note at Hebrews 6:4, MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997. For all Scripture references, see the MacArthur Study Bible.) |
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448 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 86858 | ||
"Once saved, always saved" may or not be true. It certainly is not stated in the Bible in these exact words. Moreover, I have never used those words in any of my postings, except to discuss the matter with someone else who used those words. My point: I neither claim nor disclaim the validity of that statement. My original point is that according to the plain language of Hebrews 6:4 in context it teaches that once salvation is lost -- if it is-, it would be impossible to renew that person again to repentance. Why? Because such a one has already rejected the only means of forgiveness and justification, which is the grace of God, God's one and only plan of salvation, the blood of Christ shed on the cross to atone for our sins. |
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449 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 86859 | ||
What does it mean...? 6:5 Hebrews 6:5 "Tasted. "(See [previous] Note on v. 4.) This has an amazing correspondence to what was described in [Heb] 2:1-4. Like Simon Magus (Acts 8:9-24), these Hebrews had not yet been regenerated in spite of all they had heard and seen. They were repeating the sins of those who died in the wilderness after seeing the miracles performed through Moses and Aaron and hearing the voice of God at Sinai." (Note at Hebrews 6:5, MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997. For all Scripture references, see the MacArthur Study Bible.) |
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450 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 86861 | ||
What does it mean...? Heb 6:6 ____________________ "With full revelation they rejected the truth . . . They can never have more knowledge than they had when they rejected it." "There is no possibility of these verses referring to losing salvation. Many Scripture passages make unmistakably clear that salvation is eternal (compare John 10:27-29; Rom. 8:35,38,39; Phil. 1:6; 1 Pet. 1:4,5)." ____________________ Hebrews 6:6 "Fall away. "This Gr. term occurs only here in the NT. In the LXX, it was used to translate terms for severe unfaithfulness and apostasy. It is equivalent to the apostasy in [Heb] 3:12. The seriousness of this unfaithfulness is seen in the severe description of rejection within this verse: they re-crucify Christ and treat Him contemptuously (see also the strong descriptions in 10:29). "The 'impossible' of v. 4 goes with 'to renew them again to repentance.' Those who sinned against Christ in such a way had no hope of restoration or forgiveness. The reason is that they had rejected Him with full knowledge and conscious experience (as described in the features of vv. 5,6). With full revelation they rejected the truth, concluding the opposite of the truth about Christ, and thus had no hope of being saved. They can never have more knowledge than they had when they rejected it. They have concluded that Jesus should have been crucified, and they stand with his enemies. "There is no possibility of these verses referring to losing salvation. Many Scripture passages make unmistakably clear that salvation is eternal (compare John 10:27-29; Rom. 8:35,38,39; Phil. 1:6; 1 Pet. 1:4,5). Those who want to make this verse mean that believers can lose salvation will have to admit that it would then also say that one could never get it back again." (Note at Hebrews 6:6, MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997. For all Scripture references, see the MacArthur Study Bible.) |
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451 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 87044 | ||
John Reformed: Thanks for your Note. I am quite willing to continue along this line. :-) My thoughts? Let me be succinct: Eternal security? -- Yes The BIBLE doctrine of election[1]? - Yes Arminianism? -- NO ____________________ Footnote: 1. The BIBLE doctrine of election is summed up in the following NT verses: Even as [in His love] He chose us [actually picked us out for Himself as His own] in Christ before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy (consecrated and set apart for Him) and blameless in His sight, even above reproach, before Him in love. (AMPLIFIED Ephesians 1:4 ) But we should always give thanks to God for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth. (NASB 2 Thessalonians 2:13 b) ____________________ In the next two Notes I will be somewhat less than succinct. :-) Grace and peace to you, Radioman2 |
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452 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 87045 | ||
Part 1 WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? 'Election is the act of God whereby in eternity past He chose those who will be saved. Election is unconditional, because it does not depend on anything outside of God, such as good works or foreseen faith (Romans 9:16). This doctrine is repeatedly taught in the Bible, and is also demanded by our knowledge of God. To begin with, let's look at the biblical evidence. 'The Bible says prior to salvation, all people are dead in sin-- spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:1-3). In this state of death, the sinner is utterly unable to respond to any spiritual stimulus and therefore unable to love God, obey Him, or please Him in any way. Scripture says the mind of every unbeliever "is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so; and those who are in the flesh cannot please God" (Romans 8:7-8, emphasis added). That describes a state of total hopelessness: spiritual death. 'The effect of all this is that no sinner can ever make the first move in the salvation process. This is what Jesus meant in John 6:44, when He said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him." 'This is also why the Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is wholly God's work. In Acts 13:48 we read, "And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed." 'Acts 16 tells us that Lydia was saved when, " . . . the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul." 'Romans 8:29-30 states, "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified." 'Ephesians 1:4-5,11 reads, "Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will . . . also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will." 'Ephesians 2:8 suggests that even our faith is a gift from God. 'In 2 Thessalonians 2:13, the apostle Paul tells his readers, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation." 'Second Timothy 1:9 informs us that God "has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity."' ____________________ Article by John MacArthur at (www.gty.org) - listed in Issues and Answers archives). (To be continued.) |
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453 | once saved always saved | John 10:28 | Radioman2 | 87046 | ||
Part 2 WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ABOUT ELECTION? (continued from previous Note) 'Occasionally someone will suggest that God's election is based on His foreknowledge of certain events. This argument suggests that God simply looks into the future to see who will believe, and He chooses those whom He sees choosing Him. Notice that 1 Peter 1:2 says the elect are chosen "according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," and Romans 8:29 says, "whom He foreknew, He also predestined." And if divine foreknowledge simply means God's knowledge of what will happen in advance, then these arguments may appear to have some weight behind them. 'But that is not the biblical meaning of "foreknowledge." When the Bible speaks of God's foreknowledge, it refers to God's establishment of a love relationship with that person. The word "know," in both the Old and New Testament, refers to much more than mere cognitive knowledge of a person. Such passages as Hosea 13:4-5; Amos 3:2 (KJV); and Romans 11:2 clearly indicate this. For example, 1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." Surely this means more than that God the Father looked into the future to behold Christ! It means He had an eternal, loving relationship with Him. The same is true of the elect, whom we are told God "foreknew" (Romans 8:29). That means He knew them--he loved them--before the foundation of the world. 'If God's choice of the elect is unconditional, does this rule out human responsibility? Paul asks and answers that very question in Romans 9:19-20. He says God's choice of the elect is an act of mercy. Left to themselves, even the elect would persist in sin and be lost, because they are taken from the same fallen lump of clay as the rest of humanity. God alone is responsible for their salvation, but that does not eradicate the responsibility of those who persist in sin and are lost--because they do it willfully, and not under compulsion. They are responsible for their sin, not God. 'The Bible affirms human responsibility right alongside the doctrine of divine sovereignty. Moreover, the offer of mercy in the gospel is extended to all alike. Isaiah 55:1 and Revelation 22:17 call "whosoever will" to be saved. Isaiah 45:22 and Acts 17:30 command all men to turn to God, repent and be saved. First Timothy 2:4 and 2 Peter 3:9 tell us that God is not willing that any should perish, but desires that all should be saved. Finally, the Lord Jesus said that, "the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37). 'In summary, we can say that God has had a special love relationship with the elect from all eternity, and on the basis of that love relationship chosen them for salvation. The ultimate question of why God chose some for salvation and left others in their sinful state is one that we, with our finite knowledge, cannot answer. We do know that God's attributes always are in perfect harmony with each other, so that God's sovereignty will always operate in perfect harmony with His goodness, love, wisdom, and justice.' ____________________ For further study: John MacArthur, The Love of God (Dallas: Word, 1996). J. I. Packer, Evangelism and the Sovereignty of God (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 1961). (Article by John MacArthur at www.gty.org - listed in Issues and Answers archives.) |
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454 | Reading Between the "Lions" | John 11:35 | Radioman2 | 83923 | ||
Basic guidelines toward readable writing. [Hank: I agree with you completely. I have provided some very basic guidelines to help us improve our writing.] In standard English: 1. Every sentence has a subject (noun) and a predicate (the part of a sentence or clause that expresses what is said of the subject and that usually consists of a verb with or without objects, complements, or adverbial modifiers). 2. Every sentence begins with a capital letter and ends with a period, question mark, or exclamation point. Sentences are separated from one another by the use of punctuation (a period, etc.) at the end of each sentence. 2a. Learn to use commas when and where they are needed. Basically, if you list a series of things (nouns or verbs) within a sentence, separate them from one another by the use of commas. 3. If you are new to the art of readable writing, you may wish to focus on one-subject-to-a-sentence sentences and then end the sentence and start a new one. Avoid complex or compound sentences. 3a. Avoid run-on sentences. 4. Page-long paragraphs are not recommended. After a few sentences, when you begin a new thought, then begin a new paragraph. 5. Make sure that every preposition has an object. 6. If you are unsure of the meaning or spelling of a word, look it up in the dictionary. (At least use a spell checker, if you have one.) 7. Carefully re-read what you have written before you submit it. 8. Reading your writing aloud will help you to detect awkwardly worded or unclear sentences. 9. Check your writing for spelling, punctuation, and complete sentences and revise where needed. 10. Avoid sentence fragments or incomplete sentences. 11. Don't use a pronoun (he, she, it, etc.) without a clear antecedent nearby (and usually preceding) the pronoun. 12. When the meaning of a pronoun may be ambiguous or unclear, don't use it. Instead use the noun itself. 13. To avoid confusion, when you quote someone else and then comment on what they have said or written, use quotation marks. This helps the reader to know where the quotation ends and your own writing begins. 14. When you post a question, make sure it is complete in itself. Don't use a pronoun in a question unless its antecedent is clear. Don't ask questions about a passage of Scripture without telling us the book, chapter and verse where that Scripture is to be found in the Bible. (If you don't know where it's found, then say so.) If you ask a question regarding a particular person, place or thing, you must name that person, place or thing in the question. Specific questions are more likely to receive specific answers. This is by no means a complete list of tips to make your writing more readable, but adherence to these guidelines will be a good place to start. This list is not intended to make of you a professional writer, but to help you write so that your readers will have a better chance of understanding your meaning. |
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455 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 88576 | ||
But He was saying this TO INDICATE THE KIND OF *DEATH* BY WHICH HE WAS TO *DIE*. My intent here is not to contradict anyone or prove anyone "wrong." I merely point out in what sense the Bible uses the phrase "lifted up" when speaking of Christ. So, please take no offense, because none is intended. If I understand you correctly, you imply that somehow Jesus is to "be lifted (by our words and actions)." But is that really what "lifted up" means according to the Bible? John 12:32-33 "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself." But He was saying this to indicate the kind of death by which He was to die. (NASB) And I, if and when I am lifted up from the earth [on the cross], will draw and attract all men [Gentiles as well as Jews] to Myself. He said this to signify in what manner He would die. (Amplified) Do we really want to lift up Jesus again? "For in that he died, he died unto sin once." Romans 6:10 (KJV) According to Hebrews chapter 10 (Amplified New Testament), it was necessary that Jesus be LIFTED UP (that He die) only once. v. 10 And in accordance with this will [of God], we have been made holy (consecrated and sanctified) through *the offering made ONCE FOR ALL * of the body of Jesus Christ (the Anointed One). v. 12 Whereas this One [Christ], *after He had offered A SINGLE SACRIFICE for our sins [that shall avail] FOR ALL TIME*, sat down at the right hand of God, v. 14 For by A SINGLE OFFERING He has forever completely cleansed and perfected those who are consecrated and made holy. (Emphasis added in these verses.) In summary, when Jesus said "if I am lifted up [on the cross]," He was saying this to indicate the kind of death by which He was to die. And the Bible clearly says, "For in that he died, he died unto sin once" Romans 6:10 (KJV). Therefore, it is not necessary that He be "lifted up" again and again. |
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456 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM! | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 88652 | ||
"But He was saying this TO INDICATE THE KIND OF *DEATH* BY WHICH HE WAS TO *DIE*." My intent here is not to contradict anyone or prove anyone "wrong." I merely point out in what sense the Bible uses the phrase "lifted up" when speaking of Christ. So, please take no offense, because none is intended. If I understand you correctly, you imply that somehow Jesus is to "be lifted (by our words and actions)." But is that really what "lifted up" means according to the Bible? John 12:32-33 "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself." But He was saying this to indicate the kind of death by which He was to die. (NASB) And I, if and when I am lifted up from the earth [on the cross], will draw and attract all men [Gentiles as well as Jews] to Myself. He said this to signify in what manner He would die. (Amplified) Do we really want to lift up Jesus again? "For in that he died, he died unto sin once." Romans 6:10 (KJV) According to Hebrews chapter 10 (Amplified New Testament), it was necessary that Jesus be LIFTED UP (that He die) only once. v. 10 And in accordance with this will [of God], we have been made holy (consecrated and sanctified) through *the offering made ONCE FOR ALL * of the body of Jesus Christ (the Anointed One). v. 12 Whereas this One [Christ], *after He had offered A SINGLE SACRIFICE for our sins [that shall avail] FOR ALL TIME*, sat down at the right hand of God, v. 14 For by A SINGLE OFFERING He has forever completely cleansed and perfected those who are consecrated and made holy. (Emphasis added in these verses.) In summary, when Jesus said "if I am lifted up [on the cross]," He was saying this to indicate the kind of death by which He was to die. And the Bible clearly says, "For in that he died, he died unto sin once" Romans 6:10 (KJV). Therefore, it is not necessary that He be "lifted up" again and again. |
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457 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM! | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 88711 | ||
Greetings, Tim! I am not discounting this verse. I am merely reading it in context to see what it SAYS so that I can then determine what it MEANS. Grace to you, Radioman2 |
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458 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 88760 | ||
"Any prophet speaking for Jesus, in other words, as a conduit for Jesus' own words, with a clearer explanation of spiritual things than the Bible gives us, is going to be false." ____________________ Tj57h@cs.com writes: "I am sorry that you do not see this scripture as It has been revieled (sic) to me, I operate in it's spiritual power every day. The word that I have posted on the forum is the truth as it has been revield (sic) by the Spirit to me, I am not saying I have no error in my life, I am submitted to God and he will lead me into his truth. Just because you do not understand it, does not mean I am wrong!" "My prayer also is that everyone reading this will pray for me to further be revealed the truth from the Spirit of God." ____________________ "New" Revelation 'Whenever you hear that kind of thing, there is a very important question you have to ask. I know what the truth is, and when I compare the first revelation to the second revelation, I know the second revelation couldn't be Jesus speaking through whoever that prophet is. It is not enough for someone to say, "Jesus told me this thing, therefore you ought to believe the revelation." Though many people leave it at that, quite frankly. I'm really surprised that there are so many so-called prophets of Jesus here now in these latter days, and they make a bald-faced authority claim and say, "You ought to believe this." Why? Because Jesus is speaking here. Well, the very question is...Why should I trust that any of this new material is a genuine revelation of Jesus? Why should I trust that? ( . . . ) 'What about people who pop up nearly 2000 years later and claim to have the most recent word from Christ after a couple millennia of silence? Often times you will get this response, "Well, it feels right. I really have this feeling that it's true. I have a burning in my heart that authenticates the truth of this alleged revelation." This response just won't do because what they're offering is a mere subjective test for something that is supposedly objectively true. Yet this objective truth is not patently obvious on the face of it.' ____________________ 'Testing "New" Revelation' by Gregory Koukl. To read more go to: (www.str.org/free/commentaries/apologetics/other/testnew.htm) |
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459 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 88764 | ||
You write: "The letter killeth but the Spirit givith life." What does that mean? What do you mean by that? You're not saying that what the BIBLE SAYS kills, but what YOU FEEL it means gives life, do you? |
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460 | THE MOST POWERFUL VERSE IN EVANGELISM | John 12:32 | Radioman2 | 103889 | ||
"What does this text say to us, anyway?" - - - - - - - - - - - - - "Avoid adlibbing in Bible interpretation. Avoid free wheeling in Bible interpretation." - - - - - - - - - - - - - 'Avoid superficial interpretation...avoid superficial interpretation. One of the common problems in interpreting the Bible is this little phrase, "This verse means to me...." so forth and so forth and so forth. Let me tell you something. It doesn't matter what it means to you, the question is what would it mean if you didn't live? What would it mean if you didn't exist? What does it mean period is the issue, not what does it mean to you. 'Sometimes you'll hear people get together and supposedly have a Bible study which is little more than a pooling of ignorance. People say, "Well, I look at this verse and I feel this verse is saying..." It doesn't matter what you feel. That has nothing to do with it. It's not a matter of how you feel about the verse, it's not a matter of what you think it means to you. Avoid adlibbing in Bible interpretation. Avoid free wheeling in Bible interpretation. Haphazard handling of God's Word. 'We all want to acknowledge the priesthood of the believer...yes, we all want to acknowledge that we have anointing from God, the Spirit of God who dwells within us and the Spirit of God who dwells within us is the teacher who teaches us. We all want to acknowledge that. But that is not justification for flippancy dealing with Scripture. That's why in 1 Timothy 5:17 it says, "The elders who work hard in the Scripture are worthy of double honor." It is hard work. 'Avoid superficial interpretation. Avoid "this means to me." That is not a statement that should preface any interpretation of Scripture. The question is, what does it mean if you don't exist? What did it mean before you were born? And what will mean it after you're dead? What does it mean to people who will never meet you? What does it mean period, is the issue' (www.gty.org). |
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